Divide both by a number that can go into both terms so it will be 5 .
which is 5(c-3)
Ok so firsst you do 40-20=20 20÷2.50=8 so that means amelia needs to babysit 8 hours to get $40
hope this helpd
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
yes it is 944544 divided by 10= 94454.4
Step-by-step explanation:
pls give brainliest
1.68 mm per year for 1.5 years could be rewritten as
(2.00-0.32) mm per year for 1.5 yrs.
Multiply: (1.5 yrs)(2.00-0.32)(mm/yr) = 3 mm + 0.48 mm = 3.48 mm
This approach makes use of the distributive property of multiplication.
