Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
1/6 * 42 = 7
"of" means multiply
"is" means =
Answer:
50%
Step-by-step explanation:
you divide 75 by 37.50 i hope this helped.
The mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct
<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>
Given that , The probability of winning a certain lottery is
for people who play 908 times
We have to find the mean number of wins

Assume that a procedure yields a binomial distribution with a trial repeated n times.
Use the binomial probability formula to find the probability of x successes given the probability p of success on a single trial.



Hence, the mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct.