Plss help, i’ll mark brain! it’s due soon

Can you show me how to solve-8/2

Mrrafil [7]

-8/2

divide -8 by 2

-8 divided by 2 = -4

6 0

3 years ago

How to solve inequalities

shepuryov [24]

Answer:An absolute value inequality is solved by re-writing it as compound inequality. For example.

|x+1| < 5

Since the value inside the absolute value brackets: (x+1) can be positive or negative, it is re-written as a compound inequality as the example below.

x+1 < 5

x+1 > - 5

solve for the range of values x can be

-6 < x < 4

Step-by-step explanation: How to solve inequalities

4 0

3 years ago

There were 4.24 liters of Solution B available in the science lab. Lotte used 0.38 of that amount. By rounding to the greatest p

Blizzard [7]

Answer:

B:0.16

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you keep adding it and you will soon have 4.24 liters

8 0

3 years ago

g 78% of all Millennials drink Starbucks coffee at least once a week. Suppose a random sample of 50 Millennials will be selected

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

$np=50*0.78=39 \geq 10$

$n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10$

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

$p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})$

With the following parameters:

$\mu_ p = 0.78$

$\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

$np=50*0.78=39 \geq 10$

$n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10$

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

$p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})$

With the following parameters:

$\mu_ p = 0.78$

$\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586$

6 0

3 years ago

The local amusement park was interested in the average wait time at their most popular roller coaster at the peak park time (2 p

vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

118

Step-by-step explanation:

Mode refers to a value that appears most frequently in a data set.

For example the mode in the data set below is 3 :

1, 2,3 4,3,3,9,10

3 is the mode because it appears 3 times while others appear once in the data set while the other values appear only once.

Mode is a measure of central tendency

118 appears 3 times while others appear once so it is the mode

5 0

3 years ago