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Rom4ik [11]
3 years ago
13

A study examining the performance of numerous assets from the United States and around the world confirms that a. U.S. equities

are highly correlated with world government bonds and with the commodities index. b. most assets (including common stocks) have positive correlations with inflation. c. riskier assets with lower standard deviations experienced higher returns. d. beta did a better job of explaining the returns than standard deviation. e. riskier assets with higher standard deviations experienced lower returns.
Business
1 answer:
antoniya [11.8K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d. beta did a better job of explaining the returns than standard deviation

Explanation:

Beta measures the systemic risk associated with the particular investment, it do not compute the total risk associated, which is more  logical.

Standard deviation computes the total risk associated.

Some risk is natural, like the risk of floods, natural calamities, earthquake, etc:

That risk shall not counted as for comparison as that is associated universally. Further, the risk associated with particular factors like bankruptcy of a company, or some legal case issue of a company are precisely described by beta coefficient.

Thus, beta provides better details about explaining the returns.

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When total production is greater than total expenditures, __________ is produced than households want to buy, which leads to ___
Tom [10]
If the total production exceeds the total expenditures this means that there are more goods are produced than the demand of each households. Thus, this will lead to an increase of inventory. Then this will signal the manufacturing firm that they have overproduced the goods which will lead to cut back the production. This leads to lesser prices and/or unsold goods alongside with the likelihood of unemployment. Therefore the answer is d.
6 0
3 years ago
A higher level of interest income can be received if a savings account offers a promotional rate.
KiRa [710]
True. One would get the regular stated interest rate plus the additional promotional rate. Thus one would recieve a higher income via the savings rate.
4 0
3 years ago
CIRP. Jason Smith is a foreign exchange trader with Citibank. He notices the following quotes. Spot exchange rate SFr1.6627/$ Si
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

A.

For six months, rSFr => 1.50% and r$ => 1.75%.

Since the exchange rate is in SFr/$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is

F/S => [ (1 +  rSFr ) / ( 1 + r$) ]

then we can also say

F/S *( 1 + r$) => (1 +  rSFr )

Now Left side => F/S *( 1 + r$) => [ ( 1 + 6.558) / ( + 1.6627) ] * (1 +0.0175)

Left side => 1.0133

and Right side =>  (1 +  rSFr ) => 1.0150

Since the left and right sides are not equal, IRP is not holding.

B and C.

Since IRP is not holding, there is an arbitrage possibility.

As 1.0133 < 1.0150,

we can say that the EuroSFr quote is more than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. And, we can also say that the Euro$ quote is less than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. Therefore, the arbitrage strategy should be based on borrowing in the Euro$ market and lending in the SFr market. The steps are as as follows. -

Borrow $1000000 for six-months at 3.5% per year and then we will pay back

=> $1000000 * (1 + 0.0175) => $1,017,500 six months later.

Convert $1000000 to SFr at the spot rate to get SFr 1662700.

Lend SFr 1662700 for six-months at 3% per year. Will get back

=> SFr1662700 * (1 + 0.0150) => SFr 1,687,641 six months later.

Sell SFr 1687641 six months forward. The transaction will be contracted as of the current date but delivery and settlement will only take place six months later. So, sixmonths later exchange

SFr 1,687,641 for => SFr 1687641 ⁄ SFr 1.6558/$ => $1,019,230.

The arbitrage profit six months later is 1019230 - 1017500 = $1,730

6 0
3 years ago
Find the principal P that must be invested at rate r, compounded monthly, so that $1,000,000 will be available for retirement in
astraxan [27]

Answer:

$224,174

Explanation:

Note : I have uploaded the full question below :

The Principle P that is required can be calculated from the given data though discounting future cash flows as follows :

FV = $1,000,000

r = 7½%

t = 20 × 12 = 240

P/yr = 12

Pmt = $0

PV = ?

Using a Financial Calculator to input the values as shown above, the PV would be $224,174 . Thus, the principal P that must be invested must be $224,174.

6 0
3 years ago
g 3) You are interested in purchasing an apartment complex for $2,000,000 that has Net Operating Income (NOI) of $120,000 and is
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

the cap rate is 6%

Explanation:

The computation of the cap rate is as follows:

= Net operating Income ÷ Current market value of property

= $120,000 ÷  $2,000,000

= .06

=  6%

Hence, the cap rate is 6%

We simply divided the net operating income from the Current market value of property so that the cap rate could come

4 0
2 years ago
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