<u>Answer:</u>
<em>Elimination of property requirements for voting.</em>
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<u>Explanation:</u>
Most states possessed the property requirements after the revolution. The aim of this was to prevent poor people from voting. However, the republican logic proved to citizens that an economic stake was needed in any society for them to be trusted to vote. Any voter who did not have financial independence meant that they would be manipulated and their votes will not be of use.
This was ironical because, after the start of industrial labor, the commitment of the republican fell in favor of the voters.
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C. <span>. They were determined to have a limited monarchy, and James II would not agree.
The context for this bit of history is something that became known as The Glorious Revolution. James II espoused Catholicism, which made him unpopular with Parliament. But more than that, the English leaders were upset with how James tried to assert greater power and control for himself as king, infringing on their rights. In June of 1688, seven highly-placed Englishmen sent a letter of invitation to William of Orange (who was husband to James II's daughter Mary), inviting him to come to England and be supported by them and the people as king.
A portion of their letter to William read as follows: <em>"T</em></span><span><em>he people are so generally dissatisfied with the present conduct of the government in relation to their religion, liberties and properties (all which have been greatly invaded), and they are in such expectation of their prospects being daily worse, that Your Highness may be assured there are nineteen parts of twenty of the people throughout the kingdom who are desirous of a change."</em></span><span>
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C...................................................
I believe it’s C. Britain
brainliest will be much appreciated <3
Answer:
what is the question. he did help uk in ww2
