Answer:
Missing word <em>"What is the Rate of return"</em>
a. Asset at the end of the year = (Asset at the start of the year + Increase in value) * 12b-1 charges
Asset at the end of the year = ($219 million+ ($219 million * 7%)) * (1-0.50%)
Asset at the end of the year = ($219 million + $15.33 million) * 0.9950
Asset at the end of the year = $234.33 million * 0.9950
Asset at the end of the year = $233.16 million
Net asset value at the end of the year = Asset at the end of the year / Number of shares
Net asset value at the end of the year = $233.15835 million / 12 million
Net asset value at the end of the year = $19.430
b. Rate of return = (Net asset value at the end of the year + dividend per share - Net asset value at the start of the year) / Net asset value at the start of the year
Rate of return = ($19.430 + ($6 / 12) - $18.250) / $18.250
Rate of return = ($19.430 + $0.50 - $18.250) / $18.250
Rate of return = $1.68 / $18.250
Rate of return = 9.20%
Answer:
2.41%
Explanation:
The difference between the two firms' ROEs is shown below:-
Particulars Firm HD Firm LD
Assets $200 Debt ratio 50% Debt ratio 30%
EBIT $40 Interest rate 12% Interest rate 10%
Tax rate 35%
Debt $100 $60
Interest $12 $6
($100 × 12%) ($60 × 10%)
Taxable income $28 $36
($40- $12) ($40 - $6)
Net income $18.2 $22.1
$28 × (1 - 0.35) $36 × (1 - 0.35)
Equity $100 $140
($200 - $100) ($200 - $60)
ROE 18.2% 15.79%
($18.2 ÷ $100) ($22.1 ÷ $140)
Taxable income = EBIT - Interest
Net income = Income - Taxable income
Equity = Assets - Debt
ROE = Net income ÷ Equity
Difference in ROE = ROE Firm HD - ROE Firm LD
= 18.2% - 15.79%
= 2.41%
So, for computing the difference between the two firms' ROEs we simply deduct the ROE firm LD from ROE firm HD.
Answer:$100
Explanation:
Accounting profit is total earnings less total cost.
Accounting profit = Total revenue - Total cost
$150 - $50 = $100
Economic profit = Accounting profit - Opportunity cost
$100 - ($20 ×5) = 0
Answer:
A decrease in investment spending at each price level will shift the aggregate demand curve to the left
Answer:
(a)$0
Explanation:
Since the book value is less than the generated future cash flows so there would not be any loss on impairment of the asset
The book value is computed below
= Owns value - accumulated depreciation
= $290,000 - $150,000
= $140,000
The book value is $140,000 and the generated cash flows are $165,000. So, no value would be recognized