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Answer:
A), B) and D) are true
Step-by-step explanation:
A) We can prove it as follows:
B) When you compute the product Ax, the i-th component is the matrix of the i-th column of A with x, denote this by Ai x. Then, we have that . Now, the colums of A are orthonormal so we have that (Ai x)^2=x_i^2. Then
.
C) Consider . This set is orthogonal because
, but S is not orthonormal because the norm of (0,2) is 2≠1.
D) Let A be an orthogonal matrix in . Then the columns of A form an orthonormal set. We have that
. To see this, note than the component
of the product
is the dot product of the i-th row of
and the jth row of
. But the i-th row of
is equal to the i-th column of
. If i≠j, this product is equal to 0 (orthogonality) and if i=j this product is equal to 1 (the columns are unit vectors), then
E) Consider S={e_1,0}. S is orthogonal but is not linearly independent, because 0∈S.
In fact, every orthogonal set in R^n without zero vectors is linearly independent. Take a orthogonal set and suppose that there are coefficients a_i such that
. For any i, take the dot product with u_i in both sides of the equation. All product are zero except u_i·u_i=||u_i||. Then
then
.
The value of the derivative of the function g(x) at x = 1 will be 1/3. Then the correct option is A.
<h3>What is an inverse function?</h3>A function that may convert into another function is known as an inverse function or anti-function.
If the function is f(x) = sinx + 2x + 1.
Then the derivative of an inverse function g(x) of a function f(x) at a given value (a) will be
The derivative of f(x) will be
f'(x) = cos x + 2
Then the given value of a will be
a = 1
g(x) = f⁻¹(x)
put x = 0, then we have
f(0) = sin 0 + 2(0) + 1
f(0) = 1
Put x = 1, in the function f⁻¹(x). Then we have
f⁻¹(1) = 0
and
g(1) = 0
Then put a = 1, then we have
More about the inverse function link is given below.
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The slope that passes both points is 0.
