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Rufina [12.5K]
3 years ago
11

Consider the triangles.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Anastaziya [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C = 57.2

Angle S corresponds to angle C

Both triangles are symmetrical to each other.

Inessa [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

What is the measure of angle C?

✔ 57.2

Which angle corresponds to angle C?

✔ angle S

What can be concluded about the triangles?

✔ The triangles are similar.

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the perimeter of the figure a=3?
avanturin [10]

Answer: 18

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
What angle would you need on a pie graph for a section that represented 25% of the
stich3 [128]

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Use proportion:

360:100=x=25

100x=25*360

x=360/4

x=90

6 0
3 years ago
The graph of Y = f(x) is graphed below. What is the end behavior of f(x)?
Alik [6]
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4 years ago
Which function has an inverse function?
daser333 [38]

Answer: Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.

A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, x_1 and x_2, that have the same output value y

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{|x+3|}{5}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=2  f(x)= \frac{|2+3|}{5}=1\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=8  f(x)= \frac{|-8+3|}{5}=1\ \ ,\ y=1

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{x^4}{7}+ 27  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{(1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{(-1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{1}{x^2}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{1}{(1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{1}{(-1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

Then the answer is the option B.

You can verify that The function f (x) = x ^ 5-3 is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function

5 0
3 years ago
4.48 Same observation, difference sample size: Suppose you conduct a hypothesis test based on a sample where the sample size is
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

P-value is lesser in the case when n = 500.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for z-test statistic can be written as

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } } =\frac{(x-\mu)\sqrt{n}}{\sigma}

here, μ = mean

σ= standard deviation, n= sample size, x= variable.

From the relation we can clearly observe that n is directly proportional to test statistic. Thus, as the value of n increases the corresponding test statistic value also increases.

We can also observe that as the test statistic's numerical value increases it is more likely to go into rejection region or in other words its P-value decreases.

Now, for  first case when our n is 50 we will have a relatively low chance of accurately representing the population compared to the case when n= 500. Therefore,  the P-value will be lesser in the case when n = 500.

6 0
3 years ago
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