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Brums [2.3K]
2 years ago
9

Hii! please help asap. i’ll give brainliest

Mathematics
2 answers:
KonstantinChe [14]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B) both mean and median

Step-by-step explanation:

Alexxx [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: The answer is the mean,median,and the interquartile range

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the value of x when 6-4x =7x-9x-6
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Isolate the variable by dividing each side by factors that don’t contain variable
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The minute hand on an analog clock is 8 inches long. how far does the tip of the minute hand travel in 16 minutes
Dahasolnce [82]
We know that
<span>on an analog clock
60 minutes is equal to a circumference of 360</span>°
so
360/60-----> 6°
that means 
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16 minutes----------> X
x=16*6-----> 96°

the length of a circumference=2*pi*r
for r=8 in

the length of a circumference=2*pi*8-----> 50.24 in

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5 0
2 years ago
Which function has an inverse function?
daser333 [38]

Answer: Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.

A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, x_1 and x_2, that have the same output value y

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{|x+3|}{5}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=2  f(x)= \frac{|2+3|}{5}=1\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=8  f(x)= \frac{|-8+3|}{5}=1\ \ ,\ y=1

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{x^4}{7}+ 27  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{(1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{(-1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{1}{x^2}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{1}{(1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{1}{(-1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

Then the answer is the option B.

You can verify that The function f (x) = x ^ 5-3 is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function

5 0
2 years ago
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