Answer: 16.3%
Explanation:
Given the details in the question, the cost of preferred capital can be calculated using the CAPM method.
Cost of preferred stock using the Capital Asset Pricing Model is:
= Risk free rate + Beta * ( Market return - Risk free rate)
= 4% + 1.23 * (14% - 4%)
= 16.3%
Answer:
C) causing a shortage of funds for investment in physical capital.
Explanation:
In economics, savings equals investment. Higher investments result in higher productivity, that is why the savings rate of a country is the single most important factor in determining future economic growth.
Low savings rate means that current consumption is very large, and that benefits economic growth on the short run (very short run, like 1 or 2 years), but future economic growth will suffer from it.
Imagine your house as the total economy of a nation. You earn $1,000 per month and must decide how much to spend right now and how much to save for future spending. If you spend the $1,000 right now, you will purchase several things and enjoy them immediately. But what happens in one or two weeks. Since you do not have any more money left, you cannot purchase anything else, which reduces your future joy.
Investment increases future wealth and fosters economic prosperity.
Answer: 22; 7
Explanation;
A Recession refers to the economy of a country contracting for at least 2 quarters.
Since the the beginning of the twentieth century, the United States has experienced<u> 22 recessions </u>with the worst being the Great Depression of 1929 and the Great Recession of 2008.
Of those,<u> 7 have occurred since 1970</u> with the 7th ongoing as a result of the Corona virus pandemic.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The reason is that the opening inventory value of year 2 is the closing amount of the year 1. Its similar to the closing cash amount left in till at the end of year 1 is the opening amount at the year 2. So the opening inventory of year 2 is closing inventory of year 1. This means the closing inventory of year 1 has decreased by $10,000.
As we know that:
Cost of goods sold = Op. Inventory + Purchases - Cl. Inventory
This means if the closing amount increases the cost of goods decreases and in the given scenario the closing inventory of year 1 has been decreased which means that the cost of goods sold has increased which will decrease the profit. And if the profit decreases then:
Earning per share = Profit after tax (Decreased) / Number of share (Same)
As the profit has decreased the earning per share will also decrease.