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olasank [31]
3 years ago
15

Heyy! i’ll give brainliest please help

Mathematics
1 answer:
algol [13]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5 m/s^2 toward north

Step-by-step explanation:

according to Newton's second law of motion, the acceleration of an object equals the net force acting on it divided by its mass , or a=Fm

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Which quadratic function has a vertex at (-1,4) and is translated up 4, translated left 1, and compressed horizontally?​
myrzilka [38]

Answer:

Angles

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Someone help pleasee
pickupchik [31]

Answer: 2

Step-by-step explanation: if you use a calculator or you could use paper and pencil write out the expression and you should get 2

4 0
3 years ago
If the measure of arc GH= 90° and the measure of arc EF= 45°, calculate m∠GDH.
user100 [1]

Answer:

∠ GDH = 67.5°

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of the chord- chord angle GDH is half the sum of the measures of the arcs intercepted by the angle and its vertical angle.

∠ GDH = \frac{1}{2}(GH + EF) = \frac{1}{2} (90 + 45)° = 0.5 × 135° = 67.5°

6 0
3 years ago
A bag contains 40 marbles. The probability of selecting a red marble at random is 1/5. How many red marbles are in the bag?
goblinko [34]

Answer:

8 red marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.

40/5=8

You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .

If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.

1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag

If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.

Example:

If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.

Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:

Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8

7 0
3 years ago
Mark owns a shoe store. he buys shoes for 80$ and marks them up 40%. what Is the selling price ​
amid [387]

Answer:

It should be like $112

Step-by-step explanation:

$80 times 40% is $32.

Since it is marked up, you add 80 more to 32.

80 + 32 = x

112 = x

3 0
3 years ago
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