The given statement about the correlation between two variables is; False
<h3>Pearson's correlation coefficient </h3>
Pearson's correlation coefficient is the measure of linear correlation between two sets of data.
Pearson's r is always between the values of -1 and +1.
In that range, -1 denotes a perfect negative while +1 denotes a perfect positive relationship and 0 denotes the perfect absence of a relationship.
Finally, Pearson's r is symmetric and as such the correlation between two variables x and y must be the same as the correlation between y and x.
Thus, if the correlation between x and y is 0.8, then the correlation between y and x must be also 0.8 and not -0.8 as the question states.
Read more about Pearson's correlation coefficient at; brainly.com/question/4117612
Answer:
20
Explanation:
15 divided by 3 is 5 so y equals 4 times 5 equaling 20
hope this helps
The difference is that public debt is owed to creditors while intragovernmental debt is owed to another part of government.
<h3>How to Classify Debts?</h3>
The public debt is defined as the amount of money that a government owes to creditors. Now, this debt held by the public is a large portion of the national debt.
However, Intragovernmental debt is defined as debt that one part of the government owes to another part of the government. Generally, this debt is held in government trust funds, such as the Social Security trust funds.
Read more about Debts at; brainly.com/question/1047372
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(2+1)10=30 is the answer DIDNT solve searched
