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Stells [14]
3 years ago
12

Find the ratio of the diameter of aluminium to copper wire, if they have the same

Physics
1 answer:
kicyunya [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1.24

Explanation:

The resistivity of copper\rho_1=2.65\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega-m

The resistivity of Aluminum,\rho_2=1.72\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega-m

The wires have same resistance per unit length.

The resistance of a wire is given by :

R=\rho \dfrac{l}{A}\\\\R=\rho \dfrac{l}{\pi (\dfrac{d}{2})^2}\\\\\dfrac{R}{l}=\rho \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d}{2})^2}

According to given condition,

\rho_1 \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d_1}{2})^2}=\rho_2 \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d_2}{2})^2}\\\\\rho_1 \dfrac{1}{{d_1}^2}=\rho_2 \dfrac{1}{{d_2}^2}\\\\(\dfrac{d_2}{d_1})^2=\dfrac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}\\\\\dfrac{d_2}{d_1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}}\\\\\dfrac{d_2}{d_1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{2.65\times 10^{-8}}{1.72\times 10^{-8}}}\\\\=1.24

So, the required ratio of the diameter of Aluminum to Copper wire is 1.24.

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A fl oor polisher has a rotating disk that has a 15-cm radius. The disk rotates at a constant angular velocity of 1.4 rev/s and
N76 [4]

Answer:

59.4 meters

Explanation:

The correct question statement is :

A floor polisher has a rotating disk that has a 15-cm radius. The disk rotates at a constant angular velocity of 1.4 rev/s and is covered with a soft material that does the polishing. An operator holds the polisher in one place for 4.5 s, in order to buff an especially scuff ed area of the floor. How far (in meters) does a spot on the outer edge of the disk move during this time?

Solution:

We know for a circle of radius r and θ angle by an arc of length S at the center,

S=rθ

This gives

θ=S/r

also we know angular velocity

ω=θ/t    where t is time

or

θ=ωt

and we know

1 revolution =2π radians

From this we have

angular velocity ω = 1.4 revolutions per sec =  1.4×2π radians /sec = 1.4×3.14×2×= 8.8 radians / sec

Putting values of ω and time t in

θ=ωt

we have

θ= 8.8 rad / sec × 4.5 sec

θ= 396 radians

We are given radius r = 15 cm = 15 ×0.01 m=0.15 m (because 1 m= 100 cm and hence, 1 cm = 0.01 m)

put this value of θ and r  in

S=rθ

we have

S= 396 radians ×0.15 m=59.4 m

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 2.7-kg block is released from rest and allowed to slide down a frictionless surface and into a spring. The far end of the spri
exis [7]

a) The speed of the block at a height of 0.25 m is 2.38 m/s

b) The compression of the spring is 0.25 m

c) The final height of the block is 0.54 m

Explanation:

a)

We can solve the problem by using the law of conservation of energy. In fact, the total mechanical energy (sum of kinetic+gravitational potential energy) must be conserved in absence of friction. So we can write:

U_i +K_i = U_f + K_f

where

U_i is the initial potential energy, at the top

K_i is the initial kinetic energy, at the top

U_f is the final potential energy, at halfway

K_f is the final kinetic energy, at halfway

The equation can be rewritten as

mgh_i + \frac{1}{2}mu^2 = mgh_f + \frac{1}{2}mv^2

where:

m = 2.7 kg is the mass of the block

g=9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

h_i = 0.54 is the initial height

u = 0 is the initial speed

h_f = 0.25 m is the final height of the block

v is the final speed when the block is at a height of 0.25 m

Solving for v,

v=\sqrt{u^2+2g(h_i-h_f)}=\sqrt{0+2(9.8)(0.54-0.25)}=2.38 m/s

b)

The total mechanical energy of the block can be calculated from the initial conditions, and it is

E=K_i + U_i = 0 + mgh_i = (2.7)(9.8)(0.54)=14.3 J

At the bottom of the ramp, the gravitational potential energy has become zero (because the final heigth is zero), and all the energy has been converted into kinetic energy. However, then the block compresses the spring, and the maximum compression of the spring occurs when the block stops: at that moment, all the energy of the block has been converted into elastic potential energy of the spring. So we can write

E=E_e = \frac{1}{2}kx^2

where

k = 453 N/m is the spring constant

x is the compression of the spring

And solving for x, we find

x=\sqrt{\frac{2E}{k}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(14.3)}{453}}=0.25 m

c)

If there is no friction acting on the block, we can apply again the law of conservation of energy. This time, the initial energy is the elastic potential energy stored in the spring:

E=E_e = 14.3 J

while the final energy is the energy at the point of maximum height, where all the energy has been converted into gravitational potetial energy:

E=U_f = mg h_f

where h_f is the maximum height reached. Solving for this quantity, we find

h_f = \frac{E}{mg}=\frac{14.3}{(2.7)(9.8)}=0.54 m

which is the initial height: this is correct, because the total mechanical energy is conserved, so the block must return to its initial position.

Learn more about kinetic and potential energy:

brainly.com/question/1198647

brainly.com/question/10770261

brainly.com/question/6536722

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
Will give correct answer brainliest
levacccp [35]
The potential energy= mass times gravity times height. However, we are missing height. Gravity is a constant that is 9.8 on Earth. We then solve for height by dividing 350 by 10 and then 9.8 to get about 3.5.
TLDR: 3.5
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An 85,000 kg stunt plane performs a loop-the-loop, flying in a 260-m-diameter vertical circle. at the point where the plane is f
konstantin123 [22]
A) When the plane is flying straight down, there are three forces acting on it:
- the centripetal force  F=m \frac{v^2}{r}, directed toward the center of the circle (so, horizontally)
- the weight of the plane: W=mg, downward, so vertically
- a third force, given by the propulsion of the plane, which is accelerating it towards the ground (because the problem says that the plane has an acceleration of a=12 m/s^2 towards the ground)

The radius of the circle is r= \frac{260 m}{2} = 130 m, so the centripetal force acting on the plane is
F_c=m \frac{v^2}{r} = \frac{(85000 kg)(55 m/s)^2}{130 m}=1.98 \cdot 10^6 N
On the vertical axis, we have two forces: the weight
W=mg=(85000 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)=8.34 \cdot 10^5 N
and the other force F given by the propulsion. Since we know that their sum should generate an acceleration equal to a=12 m/s^2, we can find the magnitude of this other force F by using Newton's second law:
F+mg=ma
F=m(a-g)=(85000kg)(12 m/s^2-9.81 m/s^2)=1.86 \cdot 10^5 N

So, the net force acting on the plane will be the resultant of the centripetal force (acting in the horizontal direction) and the two forces W and F (acting in the vertical direction):
R= \sqrt{(F_c^2+(W+F)^2}=
= \sqrt{(1.98\cdot 10^6N)^2+(8.34 \cdot 10^5N+1.86 \cdot 10^5 N)^2}  =2.23 \cdot 10^6 N

(b) The tangent of the angle with respect to the horizontal is the ratio between the sum of the forces in the vertical direction (taken with negative sign, since they are directed downward) and the forces acting in the horizontal direction, so:
\tan \theta =  \frac{-(W+F)}{F_c}= -0.5
And so, the angle is
\theta = \arctan (-0.5)=-26.8 ^{\circ}
 
7 0
3 years ago
An accepted value for the acceleration due to gravity is 9.801 m/s2. In an experiment with pendulums, you calculate that the val
Fed [463]

g Generally the accepted value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.801 m/s^2

as per the question the acceleration due to gravity is found to be 9.42m/s^2 in an experiment performed.

the difference between the ideal and observed value is 0.381.

hence the error is -\frac{0.381}{9.801} *100

                                                            =3.88735 percent

the error is not so high,so it can be  accepted.

now we have to know why this occurs-the equation of time period of the simple pendulum is give as-T=2\pi\sqrt[2]{l/g}

                                                      g=4\pi^2\frac{l}{T^2}

As the experiment is done under air resistance,so it will affect to the time period.hence the time period will be more which in turn decreases the value of g.

if this experiment is done in a environment of zero air resistance,we will get the value of g which must be approximately equal to 9.801  m/s^2

5 0
4 years ago
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