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ki77a [65]
3 years ago
10

A 5-lb. force acting in the direction of (5,-3) moves an object just over 12 ft. from point (0,6) to (7,-4). Find the work done

to move the object to the nearest foot-pound.
a. 11 ft * lbs
b. 34 ft * lbs
c. 56 ft * lbs
d. 61 ft * lbs

please show steps so I can learn!
Mathematics
1 answer:
snow_lady [41]3 years ago
4 0
Magnitude of force= |F|= 5 lb
In the direction of vector,let say M=5i-3j
As, we know that vector consists of magnitude and direction( unit vector)
                                        F=|F| M(unit vector).........1
In order to find the unit vector, divide the vector M by its magnitude.
M(unit vector)=(5i-3j)/√34
Now, the eq. 1 becomes
                                        F=5(5i-3j)/√34
                                        F=(25i-15j)/√34
As, the object moves from point let say P=0i+6j to Q=7i-4j
so,
                                   PQ=Q-P 
                                        =(7-0)i+(-4-6)j
                                        =7i - 10j
So,
                                  W= F.PQ
                                      
=((25i-15j)/√34).(7i-10j)
                                      =(7*25/√34)+(-10*-15/√34)
                                      =55.7 lb*ft
                                      =56 lb*ft
Option C is correct
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And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176  

P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072  

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Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.65)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want to find this probability:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176  

P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072  

P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013  

And adding we got:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262

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