Answer:
A. Take $1 million now.
Explanation:
A. If we take $1 million now the present value of the money is $1 million.
B. If we choose to take $1.2 million paid out over 3 years then present value will at 10% will be;
$300,000 + $300,000 / 1.2 + $300,000/ 1.44 + $300,000 / 1.728
$300,000 + $250,000 + $208,000+ $173,611 = $931,944
The present value of option B is less than present value of option A. We should select option A and take $1 million now.
Answer:
- $33,678.21
Explanation:
Cash flow Summary of the Project will be as follows
Year 0 = $410,000 + $3,000 = - $413,000
Year 1 = $101,000
Year 2 = $101,000
Year 3 = $101,000
Year 4 = $101,000
Year 5 = $101,000 + $41,000 + 3,000 = $145,000
So the Net Present Value can now be calculated using the CFj function of a Financial calculator as follows :
- $413,000 CF 0
$101,000 CF 1
$101,000 CF 2
$101,000 CF 3
$101,000 CF 4
$145,000 CF 5
i/yr = 13%
Shift NPV = - $33,678.21
The process is a multiplicative inverse of which people seem to check
Interest begins accruing on a __<span> cash advance </span>___ the day of the transaction
.As interest is the
<span>money that is paid regularly at a particular rate for the use of money lent
</span>A __<span>posting date</span>___ is when a payment is credited to an account.
its the date at which money is being transected from bank
so correct option is B
hope it helps
The answer is 40%, in which the following are given: the Variable expense is equal to 20 dollars per unit and Sales is equal to 50 dollars per unit. Use the formula Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales to get the answer.
Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales
Variable Expense Ratio = 20 dollars per unit / 50 dollars per unit
Variable Expense Ratio = 40 %
The variable expense ratio is an expression of variable production costs of the company as a percentage of sales, calculated as variable expense divided by total sales. It compares a cost that alters with levels of production to the number of revenues generated by production.