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2 years ago

Ill give brainliest Exterior Angle Theorem CLASSWORK

Mathematics

2 answers:

Shtirlitz [24]2 years ago

8 0

Answer & Step-by-step explanation:

7). C = 44

8). S = 40

9). S = 40

10). T = 118

You can write in the comments if you want an explanation.

Hope this help ;)

bija089 [108]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Let the required angle be x

7). $x + 22 = 66 \\ \boxed{x = 44°}$

<h3>44° is the right answer.</h3>

8). $x + 60 = 110 \\ \boxed{x = 50°}$

<h3>50° is the right answer.</h3>

9). $x + 75 = 105 \\ \boxed{ x = 30°}$

<h3>30° is the right answer.</h3>

10). $x = 31 + 87 \\\boxed{ x = 118°}$

<h3>118° is the right answer.</h3>

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Last month Mrs. Hamilton bought a 4-pound bag of potatoes for $9.12. This month she purchased a 6-pound bag of potatoes for $11.

kirza4 [7]

38 cents, could be wrong tho!

6 0

3 years ago

Find the compound interest on ₹ 31,250 at 12% pa for 2 1/2 years

IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

42,183

Step-by-step explanation:

We will use the Continuous Compounding Interest since a regular interval was not stated.

P(t) = Pe^(rt)

We will plug in the variables to the formula

P(t) = 31250 * e^(.12 * 2.5)

We can simplify and evaluate the compound interest.

P(t) = 42183.08

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3 years ago

Solve for x and explain your steps in detail using the R-E-S-T Method<br><br><br> 8x - 4 = 92

Ganezh [65]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you add 92 with the 4 and get 96 then you divide the 8x with the 96 and get 12

Hope it helps <333

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

At a car dealership, salespeople earn a 5% commission on the first $10,000 of every sale, plus a 3% commission on any amount ove

o-na [289]

Answer:

The total comission on the sale was $375.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the salesperson sold the car for $12,300, the total comission on the sale would be equal to the 5% of $10,000 plus the 3% of the remaining amount which would be:

Total comission=(10,000*5%)+(12,500-10000)*(3%)

Total comission=500+(2,500*3%)

Total comission=300+75

Total comission=375

According to this, the answer is that the total comission on the sale was $375.

7 0

3 years ago

You play two games against the same opponent. The probability you win the first game is 0.4. If you win the first game, the prob

koban [17]

Answer:

a) No, because the probabilities of winning the 2nd game are dependant on the result of the 1st game. The probabilities are different if you win or lose the first game.

b) P=0.42

c) P=0.08

X | P(X)

------------------

0 | 0.42

1 | 0.50

2 | 0.08

e) E(x)=0.66

s.d.=0.62

Step-by-step explanation:

a) No, because the probabilities of winning the 2nd game are dependant on the result of the 1st game. The probabilities are different if you win or lose the first game.

b) The probability of losing the first game is

$P(G_1=L)=1-P(G_1=W)=1-0.4=0.6$

The probability of losing the second game, given that the first game was lost is:

$P(G_2=L|G_1=L)=1-P(G_2=W|G_1=L)=1-0.3=0.7$

So the probability of losing both games is:

$P(G_2=L\&G_1=L)=P(G_1=L)*P(G_2=L|G_1=L)=0.6*0.7=0.42$

c) The probability of winning both games is:

$P(G_2=W\&G_1=W)=P(G_1=W)*P(G_2=W|G_1=W)=0.4*0.2=0.08$

d) The variable X can take values 0, 1 and 2.

X=0 is when both games are lost. This happens with probability P=0.42.

X=2 is when both games are won. This happens with probability P=0.08.

X=1 is when one game is won and the other is lost. This happens with probability P=1-0.42-0.08=0.50.

Then the table of probabilities become:

X | P(X)

------------------

0 | 0.42

1 | 0.50

2 | 0.08

e) The expected value is:

$E(x)=\sum p_ix_i=0.42*0+0.50*1+0.08*2=0.00+0.50+0.16=0.66$

The variance and standard deviation of x are:

$V(x)=\sum p_i(x_i-E(x))^2\\\\V(x)=0.42(0-0.66)^2+0.50(1-0.66)^2+0.08(2-0.66)^2\\\\V(x)=0.42*0.4356+0.50*0.1156+0.08*1.7956\\\\V(x)=0.183+0.058+0.144=0.385\\\\\\\sigma=\sqrt{V(x)}=\sqrt{0.385}=0.62$

The standard deviation can

5 0

3 years ago