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DENIUS [597]
2 years ago
9

Dice A has the sides 2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 6 and Dice B has 1, 3, 1, 3, 1, 3. What is the probability that when you roll the dice Dice

A - Dice B is equal to 1?
Mathematics
2 answers:
aleksandr82 [10.1K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

i remember doing a question just like this. Im pretty sure the answer is 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

xxMikexx [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  • 1/3 or 33.33%

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Dice A - Dice B = 1 is likely if:</u>

  • 1. Dice A = 2 and Dice B = 1

or

  • 2. Dice A = 4 and Dice B = 3

<u>Probability of the first scenario is:</u>

  • 2/6*3/6 = 1/6

<u>Probability of the second scenario is:</u>

  • 2/6*3/6 = 1/6

<u>Total is:</u>

  • 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6 = 1/3 or 33.33%
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Charlie bought 40 oz of flour for his bakery. He used 18.3 oz to make a loaf of bread, and 0.95 oz for each muffin. How many muf
Furkat [3]

Division is one of the four fundamental arithmetic operations. With the leftover flour of 7.45oz, charlie can make approximately 8 muffins.

<h3>What is Division?</h3>

The division is one of the four fundamental arithmetic operations, which tells us how the numbers are combined to form a new one.

A.) The total flour Charlie has was 40 oz, out of this he used 18.3 oz of flour. The amount of flour left now would be 21.7 (40-18.3).

Since a single muffin uses 0.95 oz of flour, therefore, the number of muffins Charlie made will be,

Number of muffins = 21.7/0.95 = 22.84 ≈ 23 muffins

B.) When Charlie had 7.45 oz of flour leftover, then the number of muffins would be,

Number of muffins = 7.45/0.95 = 7.84 ≈ 8 muffins

Hence, with the leftover flour of 7.45oz charlie can make approximately 8 muffins.

Learn more about Division:

brainly.com/question/369266

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