By applying the formulas of present and future values of annuity we can solve this problem. In this mortgage problem, first we have to find loan amount after the down payment. It is 699,000 - 699,000 * 0.2 = 559,200$. We have to set it as PV (Present Value) of annuity. Using the PV formula ![PV = A \frac{[1- \frac{1}{(1+r)^{N}}]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20PV%20%3D%20A%20%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D%7D%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20)
, we first find A, which is an annual payment. Exact calculation with mortgage calculator gives us A = 33,866.56$. After finding it, plugging this number into FV (Future Value) formula ![FV = A\frac{[(1+r)^{N}-1]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20FV%20%3D%20A%5Cfrac%7B%5B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D-1%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20%20%20)
, we find the value of the future value and it is 1,185,329.66$. And the total financial charge is 1,185,329.66 - 559,200 = 626,129.66$
The answer is: 
The inverse of a function 
is another function, 
, with the following property:
In other words, the inverse of a function does exactly "the opposite" of what the original function does, and so if you compute them both in sequence you return to the starting point.
Think for example to a function that doubles the input, 
, and one that halves it: 
. Their composition is clearly the identity function 
, since you consider "twice the half of something", or "half the double of something".
In general, to invert a function 
, you have to solve the expression for 
, writing an expression like 
. If you manage to do so, then 
is the inverse of 
.
In your case, you have
Multiply both sides by 
to get
Square both sides to get
Finally, subtract 3 from both sides to get
Since the name of the variables doesn't really have a meaning, you can say that the inverse function is
As for the domain of the inverse function, remember what we said ad the beginning: if the original function goes from set A (domain) to set B (codomain), then the inverse function goes from set B (domain) to set A (codomain). This means that the inverse function is defined on an element in B if and only if that element belongs to the range of the original function, i.e. the set of the elements of the codomain 
such that there exists 
. So, we need the range of .
We know that the range of 
is 
. When you transform it to 
you simply translate the graph horizontally, so the range doesn't change. But when you multiply the function times 
you affect both extrema of the range, turning it into ![(-\infty,0]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%28-%5Cinfty%2C0%5D%20)
, which you can simply write as 
Answer:
n=-6
Step-by-step explanation:
5n-42=12n
5n=12n+24
5n-12n=42
-7n=42
divide each side by -7
n does =-6
Variable A is x. Variable B is y. (x,y)
2 , 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
Mean is computed by adding all the numbers in the data set and dividing it by its count.
2 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 = 43
43 / 8 = 5.375 rounded to 5.4
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
hearing, taste, touch,
