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3 years ago

Freeeeeee points! :)

Mathematics

2 answers:

viva [34]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Yuliya22 [10]3 years ago

4 0

Thanks! I really appreciate it :)

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What is bigger 6 gallons or 96 pints

daser333 [38]

96 pints are bigger

Happy studying!

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can't really find the answer. Any help?

prisoha [69]

a) you need to convert one of the prices so both of them are in the same units and you can compare them.

im going to convert the Japanese Yen into Euros as the numbers will be smaller but you can also do it the other way.

£1 = 188 japanese yen

?? = 39856 japanese yen

divide 39856 by 188 to get £212

this means 39856 Japanese Yen is equal to £212

then convert this into euros.

£1 = €1.41

£212 = ???

calculate 212 × 1.41 which gives you €298.92

this means 39856 Japanese Yen is equal to €298.92

the phone in Spain costs €352.50

this shows that the phone in Spain is more expensive than the one in Japan.

therefore, the mobile phone in Japan is cheaper.

b) from Part A, we know that the phone in Japan is 39856 Japanese Yen, which is equal to £212.

so now we need to convert €352.50 into Pounds (£) to compare the prices.

£1 = €1.41

?? = €352.50

divide 352.50 by 1.41 to get £250.

this means the phone in Spain costs £250 as €352.50 is equal to £250.

now we know the phone in Japan is £212 (in pounds) whereas the phone in Spain is £250 (in pounds).

we need to calculate the difference by doing £250 - £212 which equals £38

therefore, the phone in Japan is cheaper than the phone in Spain by £38

7 0

3 years ago

Please help the questions are in the picture above

svp [43]

Not sure if I'm right but I think it's 3(x - 6) (x^2 + 5x)

Step-by-step explanation:

3x^3 - 3x^2 - 90x

Apply GCF: 3 (x^3 - x^2 - 30)

Split 30 into -6 and 5

(x^3 - 6x^2) (5x^2 - 30x)

GCF of both: x^2 (x - 6) and 5x (x - 6)

DON'T FORGET TO CARRY THE 3

And your answer is 3 (x - 6) (x^2 + 5x)

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3 years ago

What reason should kamal add to all of the question marks in order to completer the proof

brilliants [131]

Answer: The answers is alternate interior angles.

Step-by-step explanation: First of all, the questions marks given in the figure are renamed in the attached figure as (a), (b), (c) and (d).

For (a): Since AC is parallel to A'C' and A'D is a transversal for these two parallel lines, so, ∠CDB' = ∠B'A'C', because these are alternate interior angles.

For (b): Since BC is parallel to B'C' and A'B' is a transversal, so ∠BEB' = ∠A'B'C', because these are alternate interior angles.

For (c): Since AB is parallel to A'B' and AD is a transversal, so ∠BAC = ∠CDB', because these are alternate interior angles.

For (d): Since AB is parallel to A'B' and BE is a transversal, so ∠ABC = ∠BEB', because these are alternate interior angles.

Thus, all the questions marks are the reasons that the given angles are equal because they are alternate interior angles.

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3 years ago

With direct variation, if you increase the input, the output

sladkih [1.3K]

Increases proportionally. (C)

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3 years ago