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inna [77]
3 years ago
15

0) Solve each equation. 90 = 3y y = I need help asp

Mathematics
2 answers:
Natalija [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: y = 30

Step-by-step explanation:

90 = 3y

Divide each side by 3

30 = y

navik [9.2K]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is y= 30: 90/3= 30
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Please answer these! Add brackets to make the equations true!
beks73 [17]

<span>(1 + 5 ) x 2 = 12                                                                             1 + [(5 x 2) – 2] = 10 </span>

<span>1 + [5 x (2 – 2)] = 1                                                                      [1 + (5 x 2)] – 2 = 9</span>

<span>8 = 12 – [8 / (4 / 2)]                                                                      11  = 12 – [(8 / 4) / 2]</span>

<span>½ = [(12 – 8 ) / 4]  / 2                                                                   20 = 6 x 4 – 4 x 5 </span>ß----can’t figure it out …sorry

<span>0 = 6  x (4 – 4) x 5                                                                         100 = [(6 x 4) – 4] x 5</span>

<span>24 = [14 –(8 -2)] x 3                                                                     0= (14 –8) – (2 x 3)</span>

<span>12 = [{14 – 8)  - 2] x 3                                                                  12 = 14 – [8  - (2 x 3)]</span>

7 0
3 years ago
If a gambler places a bet on the number 7 in​ roulette, he or she has a​ 1/38 probability of winning.
SCORPION-xisa [38]
A) The mean would be 1.842 and the standard deviation would be 1.339.
b) It would not be unusually low.

Explanation
a) This can be modeled as a binomial distribution, since there are two outcomes (7 or not 7), the events are independent (getting a 7 on one spin does not influence the chance of a 7 on the next spin) and there are a fixed number of trials (70).  In a binomial distribution, the mean is given by n*p, where n is the number of trials and p is the probability.

μ=n*p=70*(1/38) = 1.842.

The standard deviation of a binomial distribution is given by
σ=√(n*p*(1-p))=√(70(1/38)(37/38)=1.339.

b) To determine if this is unusually low, we find the probability:
_nC_k\times p^n\times (1-p)^{k-n}&#10;\\&#10;\\=_{70}C_0\times (\frac{1}{38})^0\times \frac{37}{38}^{70}&#10;\\&#10;\\=0.15

Since this is not below 0.05, we do not consider this unusual.
3 0
4 years ago
Varia is studying abroad in Europe. She is required to pay $3,500 (in US dollars) per year to the university; however, she must
natulia [17]

Answer:

250 euros per month

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How many tens are in 90?
inn [45]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

You do 90 divided by ten.

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ashanti started to solve the linear equation 2x − 3 − 8x = 33. She first transformed the equation by combing like terms which re
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

a)No

Step-by-step explanation:

2x - 8x = -6x instead of 10x.

So it shoukd be -6x - 3 = 33

8 0
3 years ago
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