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AnnyKZ [126]
4 years ago
14

If a gambler places a bet on the number 7 in​ roulette, he or she has a​ 1/38 probability of winning.

Mathematics
1 answer:
SCORPION-xisa [38]4 years ago
3 0
A) The mean would be 1.842 and the standard deviation would be 1.339.
b) It would not be unusually low.

Explanation
a) This can be modeled as a binomial distribution, since there are two outcomes (7 or not 7), the events are independent (getting a 7 on one spin does not influence the chance of a 7 on the next spin) and there are a fixed number of trials (70).  In a binomial distribution, the mean is given by n*p, where n is the number of trials and p is the probability.

μ=n*p=70*(1/38) = 1.842.

The standard deviation of a binomial distribution is given by
σ=√(n*p*(1-p))=√(70(1/38)(37/38)=1.339.

b) To determine if this is unusually low, we find the probability:
_nC_k\times p^n\times (1-p)^{k-n}
\\
\\=_{70}C_0\times (\frac{1}{38})^0\times \frac{37}{38}^{70}
\\
\\=0.15

Since this is not below 0.05, we do not consider this unusual.
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Answer:

1) is x2=x=1950

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3900/2=1950 x2=x=1950

the next one is 9*199=1791

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5 0
4 years ago
15 points!! Please help! please explain how you got you answers
Lynna [10]

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We see that it passes through points (assuming the scale of graph is 1 : 1) P_1(x_1,y_1)=P_1(0,1) and P_2(x_2,y_2)=P_2(2,-1).

We can use slope formula that applies for any line and produce the same slope for any two different points on the line

m=\dfrac{\Delta{y}}{\Delta{x}}=\dfrac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\dfrac{-1-1}{2-0}=-1

So the slope is -1 also it intersects y-axis at n=1 so the general form of the linear function is

f(x)=mx+n

That is in your case

\boxed{f(x)=-x+1}

Hope this helps.

4 0
3 years ago
Help me please<br><br> 1,894.32 minus 396.00
sineoko [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

1,894.32 - 396.00 = 1,498.32 You subtract 396 from 1,894.32

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aalyn [17]
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