When the end of division is zero.
10 procent
Step-by-step explanation:
150 / 150 = 10
So firstly, the hypotenuse is c for both ∠A and ∠B. That doesn't change whether you consider ∠A or ∠B.
Next, the opposite side is the side that doesn't touch the angle. In this case, ∠A's opposite side is a and ∠B's opposite side is b because the sides do not touch those angles.
Lastly, we have the adjacent side. This is the side that is, as the title says, adjacent to the angle. In this case, ∠A's adjacent side is b and ∠B's adjacent side is a because those sides are next to the angle.
The answer is (A) which is 32..
If u can f(x) =160 when x=40 and if we divide 160 by 40 we get 4..
Therefore we can say that to get the f(x) we have to multiple the value of x by 4.
. *NB: as the value of x=40, f(x) is: 40×4=160
. * Therefore as the value of x=8, f(x) is: 8×4=32
Answer:
And if we solve for a we got
And for this case the value would be 96.2 for the P40
Step-by-step explanation:
Let X the random variable that represent the IQ scores of a population, and for this case we know the distribution for X is given by:
Where and
We want to find the P40 ( a) so we need to satisfy the following condition:
(a)
(b)
For this case we can look for the critical value in the normal standar ddistirbution who accumulate 0.4 of the area in the left and 0.6 in the right and we got z=-0.253.
If we use condition (b) from previous we have this:
And we can set up the following equationL
And if we solve for a we got
And for this case the value would be 96.2 for the P40