Nurse is an example of that
Answer:
e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist
A perfect hedge is nearly impossible
Explanation:
A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.
At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.
Answer:
a. Beck Inc. = 5.00 and Bryant Inc. = 2.50
b. Beck Inc. = $100,000 and 100% : Bryant Inc. = $150,000 and 50 %
c. True.
Explanation:
Degree of Operating Leverage shows, the times Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT) would change as a result of a change in Sales contribution.
Degree of Operating Leverage = Contribution ÷ EBIT
Thus,
Beck Inc = $500,000 ÷ $100,000
= 5.00
Bryant Inc. = $750,000 ÷ $300,000
= 2.50
<em>If Sales increased by 20% the effects on Incomes would be :</em>
Beck Inc = 20% × 5.00
= 100%
= $100,000 × 100%
= $100,000
Bryant Inc.= 20% × 2.50
= 50 %
= $300,000 × 50 %
= $150,000
Answer:
A. The time line will have a $500 cash flow for Years 1-5 and a $700 cash flow for Years 6 - 10.
Explanation:
A timeline orders events chronologically. Here, the timeline would list cash flows in the order in which they occur.
Please check the attached image for an image of the timeline.
I hope my answer helps you
