Answer:
220 A
Explanation:
The magnetic force on the floating rod due to the rod held close to the ground is F = BI₁L where B = magnetic field due to rod held close the ground = μ₀I₂/2πd where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m, I₂ = current in rod close to ground and d = distance between both rods = 11 mm = 0.011 m. Also, I₁ = current in floating rod and L = length of rod = 1.1 m.
So, F = BI₁L
F = (μ₀I₂/2πd)I₁L
F = μ₀I₁I₂L/2πd
Given that the current in the rods are the same, I₁ = I₂ = I
So,
F = μ₀I²L/2πd
Now, the magnetic force on the floating rod equals its weight , W = mg where m = mass of rod = 0.10kg and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²
So, F = W
μ₀I²L/2πd = mg
making I subject of the formula, we have
I² = 2πdmg/μ₀L
I = √(2πdmg/μ₀L)
substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have
I = √(2π × 0.011 m × 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s²/[4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])
I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2 × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])
I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2.2 × 10⁻⁷ H])
I = √(0.0049 × 10⁷kgm²/s²H)
I = √(0.049 × 10⁶kgm²/s²H)
I = 0.22 × 10³ A
I = 220 A
Answer:
only reason an object will move in a different direction to the net force on it is because of its prior momentum and it will always accelerate in the direction of the force if thats what u mean.. lol
Explanation:
Answer:
46 dgres is the answer
Explanation:
<em>plz</em><em> </em><em>mark</em><em> </em><em>me</em><em> brainliest</em><em> plz</em><em> Plz</em>
Given:
Force(F): 100 N
Acceleration: 10 m/s^2
Now we know that
F= mx a
Where F is the force acting on the object which is measured in Newton
m is the mass of the object measured in Kg
a is the acceleration measured in m/s^2
Substituting the given values in the above formula we get
100= 10m
m= 10 Kg
