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posledela
2 years ago
9

Does this table represent a function ? Why or why not ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
LuckyWell [14K]2 years ago
3 0
B- i could be wrong though
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What is 20% of 5000​
Dimas [21]

Answer:

1000

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sin theta+costheta/sintheta -costheta+sintheta-costheta/sintheta+costheta=2sec2/tan2 theta -1
sleet_krkn [62]

\dfrac{sin\theta + cos\theta}{sin\theta-cos\theta}+\dfrac{sin\theta-cos\theta}{sin\theta+cos\theta}=\dfrac{2sec^2\theta}{tan^2\theta-1}

From Left side:

\dfrac{sin\theta + cos\theta}{sin\theta-cos\theta}\bigg(\dfrac{sin\theta+cos\theta}{sin\theta+cos\theta}\bigg)+\dfrac{sin\theta-cos\theta}{sin\theta+cos\theta}\bigg(\dfrac{sin\theta-cos\theta}{sin\theta-cos\theta}\bigg)

\dfrac{sin^2\theta+2cos\thetasin\theta+cos^2\theta}{sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta}+\dfrac{sin^2\theta-2cos\thetasin\theta+cos^2\theta}{sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta}

NOTE: sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

\dfrac{1 + 2cos\theta sin\theta}{sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta}+\dfrac{1-2cos\theta sin\theta}{sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta}

\dfrac{1 + 2cos\theta sin\theta+1-2cos\theta sin\theta}{sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta}

\dfrac{2}{sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta}

\dfrac{2}{\bigg(sin^2\theta-cos^2\theta\bigg)\bigg(\dfrac{cos^2\theta}{cos^2\theta}\bigg)}

\dfrac{2sec^2\theta}{\dfrac{sin^2\theta}{cos^2\theta}-\dfrac{cos^2\theta}{cos^2\theta}}

\dfrac{2sec^2\theta}{tan^2\theta-1}

Left side = Right side <em>so proof is complete</em>

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. Prove or give a counterexample for the following statements: a) If ff: AA → BB is an injective function and bb ∈ BB, then |ff
Fantom [35]

Answer:

a) False. A = {1}, B = {1,2} f: A ⇒ B, f(1) = 1

b) True

c) True

d) B = {1}, A = N, f: N ⇒ {1}, f(x) = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

a) lets use A = {1}, B = {1,2} f: A ⇒ B, f(1) = 1. Here f is injective but 2 is an element of b and |f−¹({b})| = 0., not 1. This statement is False.

b) This is True. If  A were finite, then it can only be bijective with another finite set with equal cardinal, therefore, B should be finite (and with equal cardinal). If A were not finite but countable, then there should exist a bijection g: N ⇒ A, where N is the set of natural numbers. Note that f o g : N ⇒ B is a bijection because it is composition of bijections. This, B should be countable. This statement is True.

c) This is true, if f were surjective, then for every element of B there should exist an element a in A such that f(a) = b. This means that  f−¹({b}) has positive cardinal for each element b from B. since f⁻¹(b) ∩ f⁻¹(b') = ∅ for different elements b and b' (because an element of A cant return two different values with f). Therefore, each element of B can be assigned to a subset of A (f⁻¹(b)), with cardinal at least 1, this means that |B| ≤ |A|, and as a consequence, B is finite.

b) This is false, B = {1} is finite, A = N is infinite, however if f: N ⇒ {1}, f(x) = 1 for any natural number x, then f is surjective despite A not being finite.

4 0
3 years ago
Please help me with finding the area
arsen [322]

Answer:

the Answer is 382.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this Helps! :)

3 0
3 years ago
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Ryan has shells and 4 equal groups tanner has 9 more than Ryan tanner has 3 fewer shells than parker. Parker has 48 shells. How
Nataly [62]

Answer:

9.75

Step-by-step explanation:

48-3=45

45-9=38

38÷4=9.75

3 0
2 years ago
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