Answer:
I think it was the spainish, but it depends on the time it took place
Explanation:
They took over the Mesoamerican and adean civilizations, but I don't know what time we are talking about.
Your answer is A. Delusion.
Hope this helps.
Brainliest if correct.
The difference that existed between the Feudalism in Europe and Japan is that There was no exchange of loyalty for protection in Japan.
<h3>What is feudalism?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the ancient practice where the noble men in the society would have to pay the people of the lower ranks to give their services to them. The services were often based on the need for protection.
Hence we can say that The difference that existed between the Feudalism in Europe and Japan is that There was no exchange of loyalty for protection in Japan.
Read more on feudalism here: brainly.com/question/4141227
#SPJ1
Answer:
Their level of influence was the highest in ancient times.
Explanation:
The Egyptians took it upon themselves to constantly expand and improve their empire. This led to their constant expeditions for expansion. They thought their way of life was superior to others..and decided to educate the "barbarians" around them.
