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3241004551 [841]
3 years ago
5

The Carter Corporation makes products A and B in a joint process from a single input, R. During a typical production run, 50,000

units of R yield 20,000 units of A and 30,000 units of B at the split-off point. Joint production costs total $90,000 per production run. The unit selling price for A is $4.00 and for B is $3.80 at the split-off point. However, B can be processed further at a total cost of $60,000 and then sold for $7.00 per unit. In a decision between selling B at the split-off point or processing B further, which of the following items is not relevant:a. $10,000) per production run b. $96,000 per production run c. ($42,000) per production run d. $36,000 per production run
Business
1 answer:
klemol [59]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: $54,000 per production run

Explanation:

As we are dealing with the decision of whether or not to process the good further, the irrelevant cost would be the cost of producing product B from input R.

This is because this cost has already been incurred to produce product B and so is a sunk cost. Sunk costs are irrelevant to the decision to process further.

30,000 units of B were made from 90,000 units R so the cost of B is:

= 30,000 / 50,000 * 90,000

= $54,000

<em />

<em>The options here are probably for a variant of this question.</em>

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Stella [2.4K]

The approximate internal rate of return for this investment is $0.054.

<h3><u>What is rate of return?</u></h3>
  • The net gain or loss of an investment over a given time period, stated as a percentage of the investment's starting cost, is known as a rate of return (RoR).
  • You determine the percentage change from the start of the period to the end when computing the rate of return.
  • Any type of investment instrument, including real estate, bonds, equities, and fine art, can be subject to a rate of return (RoR).

Any asset can be used with the RoR as long as it is purchased once and generates cash flow at some point in the future. The attractiveness of various investments can be determined, in part, by comparing their historical rates of return to those of comparable assets.

We have, (Net Annual cash inflow x PV of an Annuity of 1 at 10%) - Initial Investment = Net present value (find closest to zero))

($17,514 x 4.111) = $72000.054 - $72,000 = $0.054 (closest to zero).

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6 0
1 year ago
The federal funds rate A. equals the discount rate. B. only matters to banks and has very little impact on individual consumers.
bixtya [17]

Answer:

D. is the rate that banks charge each other for​ short-term loans of excess reserves.

Explanation:

The federal reserves require banks to maintain a certain amount in their vaults to cater for possible withdraws.  At the close of business every day, banks have to confirm they have the required amount. Should a bank fail to meet the requirement, it can borrow from other banks that have a surplus. The interest rate that banks charge each other for these transactions is the fed fund rate.

The Fed set the fund rate. It may increase or decrease it depending on the prevailing market condition. The banks use the fund rate set to determine the interest rates to be charged on loans and mortgages. A high fund rate means high-interest rates.

8 0
3 years ago
A homeowner has a mortgage balance of $149,570.75. If the interest rate on the loan is 9.5% and the monthly payment is $1,303.55
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Answer:

Principal balance at the end of year 2 = 149,330.9079

Explanation:

Loan Amortization: A loan repayment method structured such that a series of equal periodic installments will be paid for certain number of periods to offset both the loan principal amount and the accrued interest.

We will use the following relationships:

Interest paid = Interest rate × loan balance

Principal paid = Monthly installment - Interest paid

Principal balance= loan balance - principal paid

Year 1

Interest paid    =    9.5%/12 × 149,570.75 =   1,184.101          

Principal paid in year 1 = 1,303.55 -  1,184.101  = 119.448

Principal balance =  149,570.75 - 119.448= 149,451.3018

Year 2

Interest paid = interest rate × loan balance in year 1 = 1183.156

Interest paid = 9.5%/12 × 149,451.3018 = 1183.156

Principal paid = 1,303.55 - 1183.156139  = 120.393

Principal balance at the end of year 2= Principal balance in year 1 - Principal paid in  year 2

= 149,451.3018  - 120.393861  = 149330.9079

Principal balance at the end of year 2 = 149,330.90

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  • Loss aversion is a cognitive bias or psychological phenomenon that explains why the agony of losing is twice as powerful psychologically as the pleasure of winning.

Therefore, representativeness, cognitive bias, and overconfidence are not factors relative to an arbitrary decision distortion. So, Loss aversion is the correct response to the question.

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Video call or teleconferencing

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