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Sergio039 [100]

2 years ago

11

figure 3-5 shows that in U.S. data labor`s shareof total income is aproximatly a constant over time. Table 3-1 shows that the tr

end in labor productivity. How are these facts related. Could the first fact be true without the second also being true.

1 answer:

musickatia [10]2 years ago

4 0

Yes because 1.5 shows less than drops

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When using the indirect method to determine cash flows from operating activities, an increase in prepaid expenses should be repo

Andrews [41]

Answer:

b. A deduction from net income in determining cash flows from operating activities.

Explanation:

An increase in prepaid expenses is deducted from Net Income. The reason behind it very simple and no rocket science is there. Lets take Insurance as a prepaid expense. You Paid in-advance for Insurance, it increase your current asset that is Prepaid Insurance BUT at the same time cash went out of the Business.

I hope I made it clear to you. If you still have any queries, feel free to ask me.

Thanks!

8 0

2 years ago

The journal entry to record the use of utilities in a factory could include which two of the following: (You may select more tha

evablogger [386]

Answer:

The correct options are:

A. Debit to Factory Overhead

D. Credit to Factory Utilities Payable

Explanation:

The debit entry of the use of utilities in a factory would be recorded in factory overhead since cost of utilities is a not a direct factory cost.

However, the corresponding credit would be in the factory utilities payable as an obligation awaiting payment to be made to the supplier of the service being enjoyed by the factory in order to run on daily basis

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Colgate-Palmolive Company has just paid an annual dividend of . Analysts are predicting dividends to grow by per year over the n

denis23 [38]

The amount of $97.85 is the price that dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for today

<u>Given Information</u>

Current dividend (D0) = $1.59

Dividend payments for next five years includes:

D1 = 1.59 +0.18

D1 = 1.77

D2 = 1.77 +0.18

D2 = 1.95

D3 = 1.95 +0.18

D3 = 2.13

D4 = 2.13 +0.18

D4 =2.31

D5 = 2.31 +0.18

D5 =2.49

Year Cash Flow PVF at 8.1% Present value

1 1.77 0.92506938 1.637372803

2 1.95 0.855753358 1.668719048

3 2.13 0.791631229 1.686174517

4 2.31 0.73231381 1.691644901

5 2.49 0.677441082 <u>1.686828295</u>

Present value of Dividends <u>8.3707</u>

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = D5 x (1+g)/(Ke-g))

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = 2.49(1+0.061)/(0.081-0.061)

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = $132.0945

Given that g=6.1%, ke=8.1%

PV of remaining dividends in year = 0 = PV of the remaining dividends in year 5* 1/(1+0.081)^5

= 132.0945 * 1/(1+0.081)^5

= $89.48624

As per dividend-discount model, Colgate stock should sell for today = PV of Dividends till 5th year + PV of Remaining Dividend at t=0

= $89.48624 + $8.3707

= $97.8531

= $97.85

Hence, the amount of $97.85 is the price that dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for today.

Read more about dividend

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8 0

1 year ago

A $150,000 loan is to be amortized over 7 years, with annual end-of-year payments. Which of these statements is CORRECT? a. The

Schach [20]

Answer:

The proportion of each payment that represents interest versus repayment of principal would be higher if the interest rate were higher

Explanation:

Amount of interest component in a loan instalment will be higher as compared with principal amount in the initial period of repayment . As period lapses , interest amount reduces progressively and principal amount increases . When the tenure of loan is increased , proportion of interest increases in an instalment .

3 0

2 years ago

Bond Valuation and Changes in Maturity and Required Returns Suppose Hillard Manufacturing sold an issue of bonds with a 10-year

g100num [7]

Answer:

It will be sold at $1,186.71

Explanation:

We will calculate the present value of the cuopon payment and the maturity at the new market rate of 7%

<u>The coupon payment will be calcualte as the PV of ordinary annuity</u>

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C $50 (1,000 x 10%/2 as there are 2 payment per year)

time 16 (8 years x 2 payment per year)

rate 0.035 (7% rate / 2 payment per year)

$50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.035)^{-16} }{0.035} = PV\\$

PV $604.7058

<u>The maturity will be calculate as the PV of a lump sum</u>

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 8 years

rate 0.07

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{8} } = PV$

PV 582.01

<u>The market price will be the sum of both:</u>

PV cuopon $604.7058

PV maturity $582.0091

Total $1,186.7149

6 0

2 years ago