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almond37 [142]
3 years ago
14

I NEED HELP ASAP I WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST

Mathematics
1 answer:
mojhsa [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The angles are said to be linear if they are adjacent to each other after the intersection of the two lines. The sum of angles of a linear pair is always equal to 180°. Such angles are also known as supplementary angles. The adjacent angles are the angles which have a common vertex.

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7k - 3k + 11, can somebody please help me out?
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

4k+11=4011

Step-by-step explanation:

7k - 3k=4k

4k+11=4011

7 0
3 years ago
Help please, what’s: 5x-7+2-2x=-26
svetoff [14.1K]

Answer:

7

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

5x−7+2−2x=−26

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

5x−7+2−2x=−26

5x+−7+2+−2x=−26

(5x+−2x)+(−7+2)=−26(Combine Like Terms)

3x+−5=−26

3x−5=−26

Step 2: Add 5 to both sides.

3x−5+5=−26+5

3x=−21

Step 3: Divide both sides by 3.

3x

3

=

−21

3

x=−7

Answer:

x=−7

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone explain how to use the Phythagoren theorem please?
Alex

Step-by-step explanation:

there are three parts first one is hypotenuse, base, height....

hope you understood

5 0
3 years ago
In ΔPQR, r = 4.9 cm, ∠R=21° and ∠P=104°. Find the length of p, to the nearest 10th of a centimeter.
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:7 +7=14/8Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 17

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{17,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{17} \approx 0

P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001

P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

5 0
3 years ago
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