Answer: 3.5% with a 3.50 Tip
Reason: 25.00 - 21.50 = 3.50
Y= 360.5(1+0.03)^1
y= 360.5(1.03)^1
y= 360.5(1.03)
y= 371.315
y= 371.32
I believe it is (3*4*4*4)/16=12
hopefully its right and it helped!
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Given equation:</u>
a. write a second equation so that (1,3) is the only solution of the system
To have only one solution the equation must have a different slope.
<u>Let it be 10, then the y-intercept of y = 10x + b is:</u>
<u>And the equation:</u>
b. Write a second equation so that the system has infinitely many solutions
<u>To have infinitely many solutions, both equations must be same:</u>
c. Write a second equation so that the system has no solutions.
<u>To have no solutions, the equations must have same slope but different y-intercepts:</u>
Answer:
B. 0.602%
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability is essentially (# times specific event will occur) / (# times general event will occur). Here, we have a few specific events: draw a quarter, draw a second quarter, draw a penny, and draw another penny. The general event will just be the number of coins there are to choose from.
The probability that the first draw is a quarter will be 4 / (4 + 8 + 9) = 4/21.
Since we've drawn one now, there's only 21 - 1 = 20 total coins left. The probability of drawing a second quarter is: (4 - 1) / (21 - 1) = 3/20.
The probability of drawing a penny is: 9 / (20 - 1) = 9/19.
The probability of drawing a second penny is: (9 - 1) / (19 - 1) = 8/18.
Multiply these four probabilities together:
(4/21) * (3/20) * (9/19) * (8/18) = 864 / 143640 ≈ 0.602%
The answer is B.
