Answer:
I'm not an expert here, this is a best guess!
But I would say if there is no chance that of him incurring excess costs of less than $500, then he knows without insurance he'll end up paying at least $500, possibly more out of pocket, without the insurance.
so I would say He ends up spending the least amount out if pocket by going with option A. for $75. that's $75 out of pocket with no deductible and it covers his $500+ in excess costs....B and C would also cover the excess, but would each cost $140 or $275 out of pocket at the end of the day....
with that being said, I'd say it's worth it to buy the insurance....even if he doesn't have any excess costs, he's spent $75 dollars for the peace of mind to know he's covered either way, and if he does incur the excess costs he's spent $75 rather that $500+....Even if the excess charges are only $100, which it says there is no chance of happening, but still, then he's still saved $25 altogether. Unless I'm reading it wrong, Option A saves him the most money either way, and is worth it to buy the insurance!
Answer:
<h2>
Step-by-step explanation:</h2>
First we have to found all the clothes that the manufacturer produces in 8 hours,
As given 120 clothes = produce in 1 hour
X clothes = produce in 8 hour
By cross multiplication, we get
X= 120*8
X= 960 total clothes produced in 8 hours
As also given that in each hour 5 clothes damaged ,so we can write as
5 clothes = damaged in 1 hour
Y clothes = Damaged in 8 hour
By cross multiplication we get
Y= 40 clothes damaged in 8 hour
So the total clothes that manufacturer produce with out damage clothe will be ,
Total normal clothes = X-Y = 960 - 40 = 920 clothes
Since we have two ordered pairs, we can find the slope by plugging them into (y2-y1)/(x2-x1) which translates to (3-(-6))/(-4-(-1))=9/-3=-3
Since the slope is -3, we have the equation y=-3x+b, but we don't know b. So we plug in values for x and y and solve for b.
-6=-3(-1)+b
-6=3+b
-9=b
So the y-intercept is -9 and the full equation is y=-3x-9 which means A is the only correct answer.
Hope this helped!
Answer: A. f(n) = 4 ∙ 2n-1
Step-by-step explanation:
because the 1st term is 4 according to your image, and then you will have to multiply that by its common difference and using your table, to get from 4 to 8 then 8 to 16 you would multiply by 2, and you would finally multiply that by n or known as the number of terms and 1 making the equation. f(n) = 4 ∙ 2n-1 I hope this is very helpful for everyone.
