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AVprozaik [17]
2 years ago
7

100 POINTS plz dont answer unless you know how to solve this.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexandra [31]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

31.9 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

AC/sin(angleABC) = AB/sin(angleACB)

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Kyle received the following course grades for 10​ (three-credit) courses during his freshman​ year:
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

(a) The average grade point is 2.5.

(b) The relative frequency table is show below.

(c) The mean of the relative frequency distribution is 0.3333.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given data set is

4, 4, 4, 3, 3, 3, 1, 1, 1, 1

(a)

The average grade point is

Average=\frac{\sum x}{n}

Average=\frac{4+4+4+3+3+3+1+1+1+1}{10}

Average=2.5

Therefore the average grade point is 2.5.

(b)

\text{Relative frequency}=\frac{\text{Frequency of number}}{\text{Total frequency}}

The relative frequency table is show below:

x                 f                  Relative frequency

4                3                 \frac{3}{10}=0.3

3                3                 \frac{3}{10}=0.3

1                 4                 \frac{4}{10}=0.4

(c)

Mean of the relative frequency distribution is

Average=\frac{0.3+0.3+0.4}{3}

Average=0.3333

Therefore the mean of the relative frequency distribution is 0.3333.

4 0
3 years ago
(-5+-7+2)÷(-6-(-1-6--3))
marusya05 [52]

Answer: 5

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Find an explicit solution of the given initial-value problem. (1 + x4) dy + x(1 + 4y2) dx = 0, y(1) = 0
MissTica

Answer:

a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4

Step-by-step explanation:

for the equation

(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0

(1 + x⁴) dy  = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx

[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

now to solve each integral

I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁

I₂=  ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

for u= x² → du=x*dx

I₂=  ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ =  - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂

then

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C

for y(x=1) = 0

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C

since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for  π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be

1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C

C= π/4

therefore

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4

5 0
3 years ago
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