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Minchanka [31]
3 years ago
10

The base of a circular fountain has a radius of 3.5 feet. What is the approximate circumference of the base of the fountain?

Mathematics
1 answer:
vagabundo [1.1K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

circumference = 21.98 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

circumference = 2 x R x π = 2(3.5)(3.14) = 21.98 feet

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What is 4 - (-10) equal too? explain in your own words and why so
Sauron [17]

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

When there are 2 -, they both create a +. the brackets are removed and you get 4--10, which is equal to 4+10 which = 14

8 0
2 years ago
A. 2x+5=23<br> B. x+2+5=23<br> C. x+x+5=23<br> D. 5x+2=23
storchak [24]

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

lucky guess

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose I ask you to pick any four cards at random from a deck of 52, without replacement, and bet you one dollar that at least
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

a) No, because you have only 33.8% of chances of winning the bet.

b) No, because you have only 44.7% of chances of winning the bet.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Of the total amount of cards (n=52 cards) there are 12 face cards (3 face cards: Jack, Queen, or King for everyone of the 4 suits: clubs, diamonds, hearts and spades).

The probabiility of losing this bet is the sum of:

- The probability of having a face card in the first turn

- The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.

- The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

- The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

<u><em>1) The probability of having a face card in the first turn</em></u>

In this case, the chances are 12 in 52:

P_1=P(face\, card)=12/52=0.231

<u><em>2) The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get a non-face card (there are 40 in the dech of 52), and then, with the rest of the cards (there are 51 left now), getting a face card:

P_2=P(non\,face\,card)*P(face\,card)=(40/52)*(12/51)=0.769*0.235=0.181

<u><em>3) The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the first and second turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get two consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_3=(40/52)*(39/51)*(12/50)\\\\P_3=0.769*0.765*0.240=0.141

<u><em>4) The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get three consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_4=(40/52)*(39/51)*(38/50)*(12/49)\\\\P_4=0.769*0.765*0.76*0.245=0.109

With these four probabilities we can calculate the probability of losing this bet:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3+P_4=0.231+0.181+0.141+0.109=0.662

The probability of losing is 66.2%, which is the same as saying you have (1-0.662)=0.338 or 33.8% of winning chances. Losing is more probable than winning, so you should not take the bet.

b) If the bet involves 3 cards, the only difference with a) is that there is no probability of getting the face card in the fourth turn.

We can calculate the probability of losing as the sum of the first probabilities already calculated:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3=0.231+0.181+0.141=0.553

There is 55.3% of losing (or 44.7% of winning), so it is still not convenient to bet.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the answer? I am so lost- thanks for any help given.
aev [14]

Answer:

i think that the answer is 13 meters

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
You select a marble without looking and then put it back. If you do this 6 times, what is the best prediction possible for the n
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

the possible prediction of getting a purple or blue is 2 out of 6

Step-by-step explanation:

(hope this helps can i plz have brainlist :D hehe)

4 0
2 years ago
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