60%
I pretty sure this is right
20% of 16 which is. 10%=1.6 and another that would = 3.12
<h2>
Hello!</h2>
The answer is: 33.33%
<h2>Why?</h2>
Since we have the average number of accidents that occurs in 1 month, and it's equal to 3, we can calculate the probability of 1 accident occurs by dividing it into the average number of accidents, using the following formula:

Where,
Favorable outcomes are the occurrence of the event, for this case, it's equal to 1.
Outcomes are the possible occurrence of the event, for this case, it's equal to 3.
So, by substituting we have:


So, the probability will be equal to 33.33%
Have a nice day!
Answer:
5
Step-by-step explanation:
40% means 40 parts out of 100. If we have made the numerator of the fraction 2, we have divided 40 by 20. To make this fraction equal to 40/100, we have to divide 100 by 20 as well, giving us 5.
Your answer is no solution (because a negative square root doesn't exist)
first, you divide all sides by five and then take b, half it then square it