Answer: 
This is the same as writing (n-m)/n
Don't forget about the parenthesis if you go with the second option.
==================================================
Explanation:
The probability that she wins is m/n, where m,n are placeholders for positive whole numbers.
For instance, m = 2 and n = 5 leads to m/n = 2/5. This would mean that out of n = 5 chances, she wins m = 2 times.
The probability of her not winning is 1 - (m/n). We subtract the probability of winning from 1 to get the probability of losing.
We could leave the answer like this, but your teacher says that the answer must be "in the form of a combined single fraction".
Doing a bit of algebra would have these steps
and now the expression is one single fraction.
Answer:
40,000
Step-by-step explanation:
You want to start with the exponent and then multiply afterward in both of the equations.
8 x 10^-2:
10^-2 = 0.01
0.01 x 8 = 0.08
2 x 10^-6:
10^-6 = 0.000001
0.000001 x 2 = 0.000002
Obviously, you can see the relationship between 8 and 2 in the division. Now, you just divide 0.08 by 0.000002 and you get 40,000.
Answer:
a*b = 1/2
a/ b = 8/9
Step-by-step explanation:
a = 0.66666 and b = 0.75
To multiply it we write the decimal numbers in fraction form
a= 0.666666...
Multiply by 10 on both sides
10 a = 6.66666...
a = 0.66666...
Subtract the second equation
9a = 6
divide by 9 on both sides
so 0.6666 = 2/3
Now we convert 0.75 into fraction form
Multiply top and bottom by 100 to remove decimal
so 0.75 is 3/4
a= 2/3 and b = 3/4
Answer: 50%
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
50 units
Step-by-step explanation:
you use Pythagorean-theorem which means A^2+B^2 =C^2
It does not matter the order of A and B because it is adding. But C is the hypotenuse.
If we plug in the # this is what it looks like...
14^2 +48^2=C^2
or
48^2+14^2=C^2
14*14= 196
48*48=2,304
then you add
196+2,304=C^2
2,500= C^2
and you can use a calculator for this part you do 2,500
with the 2,500 you use the sign as in the picture and it gives you...
50
which means 50*50 = 2,500
