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3 years ago

Please help! It's due soon.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sedbober [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Because f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x, f and g <u>are </u> inverse functions.

Step-by-step explanation:

f(g(x)) = f( $\frac{1}{4}\sqrt{x}$ ) = $16(\frac{1}{4}\sqrt{x} ) ^{2} = 16(\frac{1}{16}x)=x$

g(f(x)) = g $(16x^{2}) = \frac{1}{4}\sqrt{16x^{2} } = \frac{1}{4}(4x) = x$

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