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PIT_PIT [208]
3 years ago
12

Given that the measure of Angle CDB = 31 degrees find the indicated measures for angle 1 and 2.

Mathematics
1 answer:
STatiana [176]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

angle 1=149°

angle 2=31°( because they are alternating angles)

You might be interested in
Are the two triangles similar? How do you know?
Bess [88]
There are several conditions where triangles can be proved similar:

AA - where two of the angles are same.

SAS - where two sides of a triangle compare to the corresponding sides in the other are in same proportion, and the angle in the middle are equal.

SSS - Where all sides in a triangle and the corresponding sides are in the same proportion.

In the case above, we can only use the method of SAS, as only two sides of the triangles are given.

<HMG = <JMK (vertically opposite angles)

HM/MK = 8/12 = 2/3

GM/MJ = 6/9 = 2/3

As the two sides of a triangle comparing to the corresponding sides in the other are in same proportion, and the angle in the middle are equal, the above triangles are similar, with the prove of SAS.

Therefore, the answer is C.yes by SAS.

Hope it helps!
7 0
3 years ago
The number of hours required to do a job varies inversely as the number of people working. It takes 8 hours for 4 people to pain
dezoksy [38]

Answer: it will take 5 people 6.4 hours to do the work.

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of hours required to do a job varies inversely as the number of people working. Let h represent the number of hours required to do the job. Let p represent the number of people working. Therefore,

h is inversely proportional to p

Introducing a constant of variation, k, it means that

h = k/p

It takes 8 hours for 4 people to paint the inside of a house. Therefore

8 = k/4

k = 8×4 = 32

The formula becomes

h = 32/p

To determine how many hours it will take 5 people to do the work, we will substitute p = 5 into the formula. It becomes

h = 32/5 = 6.4 hours

7 0
3 years ago
In a binomial experiment with 45 trials, the probability of more than 25 success can be approximated by What is the probability
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

0.6 is the probability of success of a single trial of the experiment

Complete Problem Statement:

In a binomial experiment with 45 trials, the probability of more than 25 successes can be approximated by P(Z>\frac{(25-27)}{3.29})

What is the probability of success of a single trial of this experiment?

Options:

  • 0.07
  • 0.56
  • 0.79
  • 0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

So to solve this, we need to use the binomial distribution. When using an approximation of a binomially distributed variable through normal distribution , we get:

\mu =\frac{np}{\sigma}=\sqrt{np(1-p)}

now,

Z=\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}

so,

by comparing with P(Z>\frac{(25-27)}{3.29}), we get:

μ=np=27

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)} =3.29

put np=27

we get:

\sigma=\sqrt{27(1-p)} =3.29

take square on both sides:

10.8241=27-27p

27p=27-10.8241

p=0.6

Which is the probability of success of a single trial of the experiment

5 0
3 years ago
George bought 6 gallons of gasoine for $20.34.
Kryger [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 20.34 by 6 and you should get 3.39

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the value of x plz i will mark brainliest
irinina [24]

Answer:

x=30

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle sum in a triangle=180

x+3x+2x=180

6x=180

x=30

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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