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iris [78.8K]
3 years ago
10

Heeeeeeeeellllllllllllllpppppppppppppppp mmmmmmmmmmmeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nitella [24]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is protractor 17 inc
Degger [83]3 years ago
3 0
Fhijjuuhj. Hejdjjd. Hehdhe hejejd. Ushehdjr jdjdj dinr jfnrj
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How do I do this? Please help.
Klio2033 [76]

just do it like nike said

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3 years ago
Write each decimal as a fraction or mixed number in simplest form -7.32=
zmey [24]
-7.32=-(7+0.32)=-\left(7+\dfrac{32}{100}\right)=-\left(7+\dfrac{32:4}{100:4}\right)\\\\=-\left(7+\dfrac{8}{25}\right)=-7\dfrac{8}{25}
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3 years ago
A town has a population of 17000 and grows at 3% every year. What will be the population after 10 years, to the nearest whole nu
Archy [21]
A=17000(1+.03)^10
A==22,846.58
7 0
4 years ago
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16-(2+6)•-8 solve with the order of operations
shusha [124]
The answer is 80 hope this helps :)

7 0
3 years ago
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Which two functions are inverses of each other?
guapka [62]

Answer:

The choices were typed wrong, but we can find the inverse of each option.

For function f(x)=x the inverse is the same function g(x)=x, because an inverse of a function is where their composition gives the independent variable as unique result.

If we do that with each function, we have:

f((g(x))=x; where f(x)=x and g(x)=x, we have

f((g(x))=x\\x=x

So they are inverse.

For f(x)=2x its inverse would be g(x)=\frac{1}{2}x, because

f(g(x))=2(\frac{1}{2}x)=x

For f(x)=4x, its inverse is g(x)=\frac{1}{4}x, because

f(g(x))=4(\frac{1}{4}x)=x

For f(x)=-8x, its inverse is g(x)=-\frac{1}{8}x, because

f(g(x))=-8(-\frac{1}{8}x)=x

There you have all inverses. Basically, if their composition results in x, that means they are inverse.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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