Answer:
Please see below
Explanation:
a. Current ratio
= Total current assets / Total current liabilities
= $262,787 / $293,625
= 0.89
b. Debt to assets ratio
= Total current liabilities / Total assets
= $293,625 / $439,832
= 0.67
c. Free cash flow
= Net cash provided by operating activities - Dividends - Capital expenditure
= $62,300 - $12,000 - $24,787
= $15,685
Answer:
Option D. Both A and B
Explanation:
The reason is that the investment that are readily convertible to cash are less risk and as a result the investors are compensated with lower returns and vice versa. So the only statement that is not false statement is option C and the statement A and B are False.
Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable
Answer:
D. $65,000
Explanation:
Data provided
Direct labor = $56,500
Manufacturing overhead = $8,500
The computation of Conversion costs is shown below:-
Conversion costs = Direct labor + Manufacturing overhead
= $56,500 + $8,500
= $65,000
Therefore for computing the conversion cost we simply add the direct labor with manufacturing overhead.
Answer:
- the reproduction in which fertilization takes place is called sexual reproduction.
ii . multiple fission
hope it is helpful to you
