Move each inequality next to the number line it represents. Number Line Inequality

Assume we cut the last piece of the pie into two sections (1 and 2) along ray BD

earnstyle [38]

Answer:

If we want the greatest portion of pie, then you must choose the section with the greatest angle. Therefore, we must choose Section 2. But if we want the smallest portion of pie, then we must choose Section 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

From statement, we know that measure of the angle ABC is equal to the sum of measures of angles ABD (section 1) and DBC (section 2), that is to say:

$m \angle ABC = m\angle ABD + m\angle DBC$ (1)

If we know that $m\angle ABC = 40^{\circ}$ , $m\angle ABD = 2\cdot x + 3$ and $m\angle DBC = 4\cdot x + 7$ , then the value of $x$ is:

$(2\cdot x + 3)+(4\cdot x + 7) = 40^{\circ}$

$6\cdot x +10^{\circ} = 40^{\circ}$

$6\cdot x = 30^{\circ}$

$x = 5$

Then, we check the angles of each section:

Section 1

$m\angle ABD = 2\cdot x + 3$

$m\angle ABD = 13^{\circ}$

Section 2

$m\angle DBC = 4\cdot x + 7$

$m\angle DBC = 27^{\circ}$

If we want the greatest portion of pie, then you must choose the section with the greatest angle. Therefore, we must choose Section 2. But if we want the smallest portion of pie, then we must choose Section 1.

6 0

2 years ago

On a map, 1 inch equals 100 miles. If Boston is 250 miles away from Dover, how far away is it on the map

12345 [234]

Answer:

2.5 inch i think because 1 inch equals 100 miles and .5 i think it is 50 miles

7 0

3 years ago

What is 6,584,003 to nearest ten thousand

mamaluj [8]

6,580,000 itstifkxkgxjfxjxjfxjgxjg

6 0

2 years ago

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What is 3 * ^-2 In pre-algebra

pentagon [3]

3 ^ -2 =
1/3^2 =
1/9

Whenever your power is negative on the numerator, you move it to the denominator and make it positive.

4 0

3 years ago

The Waverly Brush Company issued 4,000 shares of common stock worth $200,000.00 total. What is the par value of each share?

Lesechka [4]

What you have to do for this is to divide the total worth ($200,000.00) by the number of shares.

So this means that we need to count:

200 000 ÷4 000

here's a trick:
if you divide two numbers with many 0s at the end, you can always erase the SAME mount of 0s at the end (this is equivalent to dividing by 10).

so
200 000 ÷4 000

is equivalent to :

200 ÷4

which is 50! (4*50=200)

so the answer is that each share was worth 50 dollars.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers