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weeeeeb [17]
3 years ago
12

The measure of an angle is 76º. What is the measure of its complementary angle?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Delvig [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago
5 0
Answer is 14 :D hope this helps
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1/6(a+12)= -4 please help because I don’t understand this
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

a=-36

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6(a+12)=-4

1) Distribute <u>1/6</u> to a and 12:

1/6a+2=-4

2) Subtract 2 from both sides:

1/6a=-6

3) Multiply both sides by the reciprocal of 1/6: (6/1)

a=-36

Let me know if you have any confusion on how I reached the solution :)

3 0
2 years ago
At the amusement park, you decide to ride the Ferris wheel, which has a maximum height of 50 meters and a diameter of 35 meters.
andrew-mc [135]
It will take 75 seconds for your seat to reach a height of 50 meters
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3A: Determine the value of angle 1 and provide a reason why. *
Otrada [13]

The answer is 45°

By determining the angles of triangle ACB (A=30°, B=45°, C=105° (total of 180°)) and knowing that angle 1 correlates to angle 4 ((1)°=(4)°), we can find angle 1, which is 45°, equal to angle 4.

8 0
2 years ago
Starting with 10 blue balls, in each of 10 sequential rounds, we remove a random ball and replace it with a new red ball. For ex
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer:

Suppose the fraction of blue balls at any given state n is f_{n}. At the start of the process we have: f_{0}=1.

Now consider the situation after having drawn n times.

The current fraction of blue balls is f_{n}, the number of blue balls is therefore 10f_{n}.

We either draw a red ball, with probability 1−f_{n}.  and the number of red balls, blue balls stay the same (we swap red for red):

f_{n+1}(red)=f_{n}

or we draw a blue ball, with probability f_{n}  and we obtain 10f_{n}−1 blue balls on a total of 10 balls, thus:

f_{n+1}(blue) = (10f_{n}− 1)/10

The total probability of (fraction of) blue balls after this n'th draw is therefore:

f_{n+1}=f_{n+1}(red)(1−f_{n})+f_{n+1}(blue)f_{n}

which can be simplified to:

f_{n+1}=0.9f_{n}

which leads to:

fn=0.9f_{n}

At the end of the 10'th draw the fraction of blue balls is equal to:

f_{10} = 0.9^{10} ≈ 0.348678

8 0
3 years ago
Audrey measured the width of her dining room in inches. It is 150 inches. How many feet wide is her dining room?
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

divide 150 by 12 ( because there are 12 inches in one foot) and your answer would be 12.5 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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