Answer:
The bond has a 2 percent coupon and a face value at issuance of $1000 which is the same with the Treasury inflation-protected bond. However, the reference Consumer Price Index (CPI) which is a measure of the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services has increased from 202.34 to 203.18. From this deduction, what I know for certain about this bond is that the interest payment have increased and the coupon rate is still 2 percent.
Answer:
The correct statement related to the pro forma statements is:
The addition to retained earnings is equal to net income less cash dividends.
Explanation:
When the beginning retained earnings are increased by the addition to retained earnings, it means that the cash dividends have been subtracted from the net income. This addition is the leftover net income after offsetting the dividends. It increases the retained earnings by the end of the financial period.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is given below:
For Bank A,
Effective annual rate is
= (1 + 0.10 ÷ 12)^12 - 1
= 10.47%
For Bank B,
Effective annual rate is
= (1 + 0.11 ÷ 4)^4 - 1
= 11.46%
And,
For Bank C,
Effective annual rate = 12%
Therefore, Bank A is best to borrow at lowest effective annual rate
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of depreciation for each of the first two years by the straight-line method is shown below:-
Depreciation
= (Assets cost - Salvage value) ÷ Useful life
= ($171,000 - 0) ÷ 25
= $6,840
For First year = $6,840
For Second year = $6,840
It would be the same for the remaining useful life
b. The computation of depreciation for each of the first two years by the double-declining-balance method is shown below:-
First we have to determine the depreciation rate which is shown below:
= One ÷ useful life
= 1 ÷ 25
= 4%
Now the rate is double So, 8%
In year 1, the original cost is $171,000, so the depreciation is $13,680 after applying the 8% depreciation rate
And, in year 2, the ($171,000 - $13,680) × 8% = $12,585.60
Answer:
Results are below.
Explanation:
<u>To calculate the activities rates, we need to use the following formula on each pool:</u>
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Pool 1= 20,000/10,000= $2 per direct labor dollar
Pool 2= 15,000/50= $300 per setup
Pool 3= 10,000/200= $50 per hour
<u>Now, we can allocate costs to each product:</u>
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Product A:
Pool 1= 2*4,000= 8,000
Pool 2= 300*20= 6,000
Pool 3= 50 *50= 2,500
Total allocated costs= $16,500
Product B:
Pool 1= 2*6,000= 12,000
Pool 2= 300*30= 9,000
Pool 3= 50 *150= 7,500
Total allocated costs= $28,500
