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Pachacha [2.7K]
3 years ago
6

When using a perpetual inventory system and the weighted-average inventory costing method, a new weighted-average cost per unit

is computed __________ each __________.
Business
1 answer:
quester [9]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

After each purchase

Explanation:

perpetual inventory system can be regarded as a kind of inventory management that utilize technology in the documentation of real-time transactions whenever stock is received or sold, this method is reliable and the efficiency is high compare to

periodic inventory system. It should be noted that When using a perpetual inventory system and the weighted-average inventory costing method, a new weighted-average cost per unit is computed after each purchase. perpetual inventory system can be use by gocesory stores.

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Your​ company, which has a MARR of​ 12%, is considering the following two investment​ alternatives:
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

future worth:

project A  11,615.26

project B  12,139.18‬

It should choose project B as their future value is greater

IRR of project A: 13.54%

We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay

It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.

Explanation:

Project A

We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.

Revenues future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\  

C 15,000

time 8

rate 0.12

15000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{8} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $184,495.3970  

Expenses future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C 3,000

time 10

rate 0.12

3000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{10} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $52,646.2052  

Cost future value

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 40,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

40000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 124,233.93

Net future worth:

-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value

future worth 11,615.26

Project B

cost:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 60,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

60000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 186,350.89

expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)

revenues

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\  

C 24,000

time 7

rate 0.12

24000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{7} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $242,136.2815  

TOTAL

242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18‬

Internal rate of return of project A

we write the time and cash flow for each period.

Time Cash flow

0 -40,000

1 -3,000

2 -3,000

3 12,000

4 12,000

5 12,000

6 12,000

7 12,000

8 12,000

9 12,000

10 16,000

IRR 13.54%

Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)

and we got the IRR of the project

6 0
4 years ago
Virus protection ____ and apps require continual updates with information on recently discovered viruses.
Alenkinab [10]

<span>Virus protection software must be updated continually with information on recently discovered viruses. A virus is a small, potentially damaging computer program that can infect a computer without its user's knowledge.</span> Hackers often exploit well-known security vulnerabilities in popular software to spread destructive programs such as viruses.

7 0
3 years ago
Michael Company reports the following account balances at the end of the first year of​ operations: Revenues $ 160 comma 000 Cos
professor190 [17]

Answer:

$46,000

Explanation:

The computation of the total liabilities at the end of the first​ year is shown below:

We know that

Total assets = Total liabilities + stockholder equity

where,

Total assets = Cash + land + short term investment

                    = $102,000 + $40,000 + $14,000

                    = $156,000

Stockholder equity = Common stock + net income - dividend paid

                                = $50,000 + 72,000 - $12,000

                                = $110,000

So, the total liabilities would be

= $156,000 - $110,000

= $46,000

Working Note:

The net income is

= Revenue - cost of goods sold - Salaries Expense -  Utilities Expense - Advertising Expense ​

= $160,000 - $46,000 - $21,000 - $11,000 - $10,000

= $72,000

3 0
4 years ago
the difference between the actual quanity and the standard quanity, multiplied by the standard price is the
dalvyx [7]

Answer: Direct materials quantity variance.

Explanation:

Direct Material quantity variance is the difference between the actual quantity of materials used in production and the standard quantity that was supposed to be used, multiplied by the standard price of the material.

It is a method that checks the company's efficiency is being able to use raw materials to produce goods. If the Actual quantity needed is greater than the Standard quantity, this will be considered an Unfavorable Variance and mean that the company was not efficient in using the materials.

Causes of this can be low quality of materials and inadequate employee training.

6 0
3 years ago
1. A statement of affairs shows $50,000 of assets pledged to fully secured creditors, $100,000 of assets pledged to partially se
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

B. $165,000

This amount is made up of as follows:

Partially unsecured Liability = $25,000 ($125,000 - 100,000)

plus Unsecured with priority = $20,000

plus Totally Unsecured  = $120,000

Total = $165,000

Explanation:

a) The fully secured liability of $40,000 had secured assets worth $50,000, giving excess assets of $10,000.

b) The partially secured liability of $125,000 could only be secured with assets worth $100,000, leaving the balance of $25,000 as unsecured.

c) The Unsecured with priority equals $20,000

d) The completely unsecured without priority equals $120,000.

When (b) to (d) are summed, the total is $165,000.

e) The unsecured liabilities with priority will be paid before other all unsecured liabilities.  That is the only advantage they enjoy.  But, they can  only be settled after all reorganization expenses had been settled.

6 0
3 years ago
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