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Orlov [11]
3 years ago
10

Plot the points (0,6), (3,15.8), and (9.5,0) using the graphing tool, and find the function.

Mathematics
1 answer:
finlep [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

zero ang sagot :)

Step-by-step explanation:

(0×6)×(3.15-8)×(9-5)

0(3.15-8)×(9-5)

=0

You might be interested in
A school principal plans to form teams from 126 third-graders, 180 fourth-graders, and 198 fifth-graders so that there is the sa
marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

There are 9 teams possible each having 14 third-graders, 20 Fourth-graders, 22 Fifth-graders

Step-by-step explanation:

126 third-graders

180 fourth-graders

198 fifth-graders

Find the highest common factor of 126, 180, 198

Factors of 126: 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 9, 14, 18, 21, 42, 63, 126.

Factors of 180 : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20, 30, 36, 45, 60, 90, 180

Factors of 198: 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 11, 18, 22, 33, 66, 99, 198.

The highest common factor of 126, 180, 198 is 9

The largest possible number of teams that can be formed is 9

Each team has

third-graders = 126 / 9

= 14

Fourth-graders = 180 / 9

= 20

Fifth-graders = 198 divided by 9

= 22

There are 9 teams possible each having 14 third-graders, 20 Fourth-graders, 22 Fifth-graders

3 0
3 years ago
(Pl3ase H3lp M3) -1 3/5 ÷ -2/3​
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

2 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

−1 3/5 / −2/3

=2 2/5

(Decimal: 2.4)

i hope this helps

brainliest is very much appreciated...  :}

4 0
3 years ago
A sailboat sails for 1/6 of an hour and travels 2 1/2 miles. What is it's rate in miles per hour? ​
Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

The sail boat travels 2.5 miles in (1/6) of an hour so that would be

2.5 miles / (1/6) hours =

2.5 * 6 = 15 miles per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
A roulette wheel has the numbers 1 through 36, 0, and 00. A bet on four numbers pays 8 to 1 (that is, if you bet $1 and one of t
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

Lose $0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 38 possible spots on the roulette wheel (numbers 1 to 36, 0 and 00).

If the player can choose four numbers on single $1 bet, his chances of winning (W) and losing (L) are as follows:

P(W) = \frac{4}{38} \\P(L) = 1-P(W) = 1-\frac{4}{38} \\P(L) = \frac{34}{38}

The expected value of the bet is given by the probability of winning multiplied by the payout ($8), minus the probability of losing multiplied by the bet cost ($1)

EV=\frac{4}{38}*\$8 -\frac{34}{38}*\$1\\EV= -\$0.05

On each bet, the player is expected to lose 5 cents ($0.05).

4 0
3 years ago
(SHOW UR WORK) What is the result of 90.425 subtracted from 48.4?
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer

42.025

Step-by-step explanation:

8    

90.425

- 48.400

= 42.025

You substitute the 9 to an 8

Hope this helps ._.

5 0
2 years ago
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