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Sergio039 [100]
3 years ago
9

Help I need to know how to do it step by step asap ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
vovangra [49]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

y=1/4x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve for x. Show each step of the solution. 4.5(4 − x ) + 36 = 202 − 2.5(3x + 28)
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Lcm of 2 and 3 very very very urgent
Licemer1 [7]

Answer: 6

Step-by-step explanation: 2x3=6 it’s the lowest multiple

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PLEASE HELP ME!! ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!
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C

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1/4 is .25

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Samir is an expert marksman. When he takes aim at a particular target on the shooting range, there is a 0.950.950, point, 95 pro
Vinvika [58]

Answer:

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them

Step-by-step explanation:

For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target

This means that p = 0.95

10 targets

This means that n = 10

What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?

Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 10) + P(X < 10) = 1

We want P(X < 10). So

P(X < 10) = 1 - P(X = 10)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 10) = C_{10,10}.(0.95)^{10}.(0.05)^{0} = 0.5987

P(X < 10) = 1 - P(X = 10) = 1 - 0.5987 = 0.401

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them

7 0
3 years ago
401 km 101 m – 34 km 153 m
Nikolay [14]

Given :

An expression D = 401 km 101 m – 34 km 153 m.

To Find :

Value of D.

Solution :

We know, 1 km = 1000 m.

So, 401 km 101 m =( 401000 + 101 ) m = 401101 m.

Also, 34 km 153 m = ( 34000 + 153 ) m = 34153 m.

Now, D is given by :

D = 401101 - 34153 m

D = 366948 m

Now, D = 366948 m = 366 km 948 m.

Therefore, the difference is 366 km 948 m.

Hence, this is the required solution.

4 0
3 years ago
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