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lilavasa [31]
4 years ago
9

Which of the following errors, each considered individually, would cause the trial balance to be out of balance? A payment of $1

48 to a creditor was posted as a debit to Accounts Payable and a debit of $148 to Cash. A payment of $59 for supplies was posted as a debit of $95 to Supplies and a credit of $95 to Cash. Cash of $530 received from a customer on account was posted as a debit of $350 to Cash and as a credit of $350 to Accounts Payable. A transaction was not posted.
Business
1 answer:
alukav5142 [94]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A payment of $148 to a creditor was posted as a debit to Accounts Payable and a debit of $148 to Cash.

Explanation:

Even if the others are wrong, they by themselves wouldn´t cause the trial balance to be out of balance, because in the end they have similar of the same amount of money in debit and credit, the only one that would make the trial balance to be out of balance would be A payment of $148 to a creditor was posted as a debit to Accounts Payable and a debit of $148 to Cash.  because as you can see it has both transactions in the debit side, and when doing trail balances for every debit there is always a credit with the same amount.

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A bond has a par value of $1,000, a time to maturity of 10 years, and a coupon rate of 8.60% with interest paid annually. If the
Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

Capital Gain Yield = 0.94%

Explanation:

Par Value = $1,000

Current Price = $860

Annual Coupon Rate = 8.60%

Annual Coupon = 8.60% * $1,000

Annual Coupon = $86

Time to Maturity = 10 years

Let annual YTM be i%

$860 = $86 * PVIFA(i%, 10) + $1,000 * PVIF(i%, 10)

Using financial calculator:

N = 10

PV = -860

PMT = 86

FV = 1000

I/Y = 10.98%

Annual YTM = 10.98%

Price Next Year = $86 * PVIFA(10.98%, 9) + $1,000 * PVIF(10.98%, 9)

Price Next Year = $86 * (1 - (1/1.1098)^9) / 0.1098 + $1,000 / 1.1098

Price Next Year = $868.12

Capital Gain Yield = (Price Next Year - Current Price) / Current Price

Capital Gain Yield = ($868.12 - $860) / $860

Capital Gain Yield = 0.0094

Capital Gain Yield = 0.94%

6 0
4 years ago
Flavor Enterprises has been approached about providing a new service to its clients. The company will bill clients $140 per hour
Bumek [7]

Answer:

c. $65.

Explanation:

The computation of the per hour opportunity cost is as follows:

= Per hour revenue - per hour variable cost

= $140 - $75

= $65

The fixed cost would not be considered as it is a sunk cost

Therefore the  per hour opportunity cost is $65

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

3 0
3 years ago
In the context of integrating the dimensions of culture, which of the following are very useful in depicting what countries appe
podryga [215]

Answer:

A. Cluster distribution

Explanation:

Base on the scenario been described in the question, the context which is very useful in depicting what country appear similar in values to some extent they differ from other country groupings is cluster distribution

A cultural cluster distribution is a distinct group of nations that are close in regional proximity and they share or have a similar economic, development history, religion, and other factors .

6 0
4 years ago
You are analyzing a project and have developed the following estimates: unit sales = 2,150, price per unit = $84, variable cost
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The answer is: an increase of $1,397.50

Explanation:

First we have to calculate the net income for the original sale price per unit of $84 and then subtract the depreciation expenses and taxes to calculate the operating cash flow:

total revenue (2,150 x $84)                                    $180,600

cost of goods sold (2,150 x $57)                           ($122,550)

<u>SG&A, operating expenses                                   ($13,900)      </u>  

net income                                                              $44,150

<u>depreciation expense                                            ($8,300)       </u>

EBIT                                                                         $35,850

<u>taxes (35%)                                                             ($12,547.50) </u>

operating cash flow                                              $23,302.50  

Then we calculate the new net income for the second sale price per unit of $85 and then subtract the depreciation expenses and taxes to calculate the new operating cash flow:

total revenue (2,150 x $85)                                    $182,750

cost of goods sold (2,150 x $57)                           ($122,550)

<u>SG&A, operating expenses                                   ($13,900)      </u>

net income                                                              $46,300

<u>depreciation expense                                            ($8,300)       </u>

EBIT B                                                                      $38,000

<u>taxes (35%)                                                             ($13,300)      </u>

operating cash flow B                                           $24,700

An increase of $1 in the selling price will result in an increase of $1,397.50 on the operating cash flow.  

5 0
4 years ago
BRAINLIEST TO FIRST CORRECT ANSWER TY
Alisiya [41]
10. none of the above.
explanation: all of the reason are applicable for determining the homeowners insurance premium.
11. Whole life insurance
Explanation: whole life insurance, has steady, more expensive premiums than term insurance since it lasts a lifetime and includes fixed death benefits and guaranteed cash value accumulation.
5 0
3 years ago
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