Answer:
the approval was already anticipated by the market
Explanation:
This abnormal return of 0% suggests that the approval was already anticipated by the market. Meaning that the price of the Pharma company's stock had already been affected by the speculation previously and when the FDA made the announcement investors had already made their move in the market with regards to Pharma's stock. Thus causing no further move and a return of 0% to occur.
Answer:
$88.24
Explanation:
The computation of the intrinsic value of a share of Xyrong stock is shown below;
k = risk free rate of retunr+ beta[expected market rate of return - risk free rate of return]
= 10.5% + 1.5(17% - 10.5%)
= 20.25%
Now
growth rate = b × ROE
= .5 × 24%
= 12%
Now the intrinsic value of the stock is
= (($13 × 50%) × (1 + 0.12)) ÷ (0.2025 - 0.12)
= $88.24
Answer:
a. Cash for $180
Explanation:
The receipts from the petty cash fund indicate that the owner of the box made purchases adding up to $177. Therefore that money is no longer part of the fund. Since the fund holds $200 and currently only has $20 then to replenish the account the journal entry would need to include a credit to cash for $180 ... ($200-$20=$180)
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
when manufacturing overhead has a credit balance, overhead is overapplied. Overapplied overhead means that the overhead assigned to work in process is greater than the overhead incurred. Also, since the amount is immaterial, it should be closed in cost of goods sold.
The adjusting entry for the overapplied over-head is:
b. debit factory overhead $5,600; credit cost of goods sold $5,600.
After posting this entry the factory overhead account will have a zero balance.
Hope it helps!
