Answer:1/81
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
9
Step-by-step explanation:
6÷2(1+2)
(1+2)
3
6÷2×3
6÷2=
3
3×3
9
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
Answer:
The axis of symmetry is -b/2a
The x-intercept shown is 3 units away from the axis of symmetry.
The other x-intercept also must be 3 units away from the axis of symmetry but on the opposite side.
Subtract 3 from the axis of symmetry.
The other x-intercept is (-b/2a-3,0)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
its the second one
Step-by-step explanation:
hope it helps
