Hey there! Your answer to this problem is 2160..
Explanantion:
Since every car Sara sells, she gets 9% of the commission, this means that at the last few step, we would have to give 9% of the total cost to Sara.
If 100% is 20,000, then 50% would be 10,000. But we have to find the cost of 20%. So what we would actually be doing is multiplying 20 with 0.01. 20x0.01 is 0.2 or 0.20.
Then you add the 4,000 to the 20,000 because it states, “the next day, they sold the car 20% more than they paid. This means that you’ll have to add it. 20,000 plus 4000 would be 24,000. So 24,000 would be the cost of the car they sold.
However they didn’t wanna know the cost of the car, they wanted to know how much Sara would get. So you would have to take 9% of the cost of the cost which would be 2,160.
Final result: $2,160
Answer:
33x-44
Step-by-step explanation:
15x-20-24+18x
33x-44
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 3.61×10^5 A
Step-by-step explanation: Since the brain has been modeled as a current carrying loop, we use the formulae for the magnetic field on a current carrying loop to get the current on the hemisphere of the brain.
The formulae is given below as
B = u×Ia²/2(x²+a²)^3/2
Where B = strength of magnetic field on the axis of a circular loop = 4.15T
u = permeability of free space = 1.256×10^-6 mkg/s²A²
I = current on loop =?
a = radius of loop.
Radius of loop is gotten as shown... Radius = diameter /2, but diameter = 65mm hence radius = 32.5mm = 32.5×10^-3 m = 3.25×10^-2m
x = distance of the sensor away from center of loop = 2.10 cm = 0.021m
By substituting the parameters into the formulae, we have that
4.15 = 1.256×10^-6 × I × (3.25×10^-2)²/2{(0.021²) + (3.25×10^-2)²}^3/2
4.15 = 13.2665 × 10^-10 × I/ 2( 0.00149725)^3/2
4.15 = 1.32665 ×10^-9 × I / 2( 0.000058)
4.15 × 2( 0.000058) = 1.32665 ×10^-9 × I
I = 4.15 × 2( 0.000058)/ 1.32665 ×10^-9
I = 4.80×10^-4 / 1.32665 ×10^-9
I = 3.61×10^5 A
Answer:
a) 
And we want the probability from 0 to two deviations above the mean and we got 95/2 = 47.5 %
b) 
So one deviation below the mean we have: (100-68)/2 = 16%
c) 
For this case below 2 deviation from the mean we have 2.5% and above 1 deviation from the mean we got 16% and then the percentage between -2 and 1 deviation above the mean we got: (100-16-2.5)% = 81.5%
Step-by-step explanation:
For this case we have a random variable with the following parameters:
From the empirical rule we know that within one deviation from the mean we have 68% of the values, within two deviations we have 95% and within 3 deviations we have 99.7% of the data.
We want to find the following probability:
We can find the number of deviation from the mean with the z score formula:
And replacing we got
And we want the probability from 0 to two deviations above the mean and we got 95/2 = 47.5 %
For the second case:
So one deviation below the mean we have: (100-68)/2 = 16%
For the third case:
And replacing we got:
For this case below 2 deviation from the mean we have 2.5% and above 1 deviation from the mean we got 16% and then the percentage between -2 and 1 deviation above the mean we got: (100-16-2.5)% = 81.5%
