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3 years ago

N°1. (1+1)x1-1 N°2. (2+2)x 2-6

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sveta_85 [38]3 years ago

8 0

Step-by-step explanation:

do () first

2*1-1

then multiplication

2-1

then subtraction

same reason as above

4 *2 -6

8-6

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A book has been discounted by 30%. It is on sale for $22.40. Find the original price.

Harrizon [31]

ANSWER: $29.12 is the original price

EXPLANATION:
Do 22.40 • 0.30 to get 6.72
Then take 6.72 and add it to 22.40
This gives you the original price, $29.12

8 0

3 years ago

The probability that a student has a Visa card (event V) is .73. The probability that a student has a MasterCard (event M) is .1

snow_lady [41]

We assumed in this answer that the question b is, Are the events V and M independent?

Answer:

(a). The probability that a student has either a Visa card or a MasterCard is $\\ P(V \cup M) = 0.88$ . (b). The events V and M are not independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

The key factor to solve these questions is to know that:

$\\ P(V \cup M) = P(V) + P(M) - P(V \cap M)$

We already know from the question the following probabilities:

$\\ P(V) = 0.73$

$\\ P(M) = 0.18$

The probability that a student has both cards is 0.03. It means that the events V AND M occur at the same time. So

$\\ P(V \cap M) = 0.03$

The probability that a student has either a Visa card or a MasterCard

We can interpret this probability as $\\ P(V \cup M)$ or the sum of both events; that is, the probability that one event occurs OR the other.

Thus, having all this information, we can conclude that

$\\ P(V \cup M) = P(V) + P(M) - P(V \cap M)$

$\\ P(V \cup M) = 0.73 + 0.18 - 0.03$

$\\ P(V \cup M) = 0.88$

Then, the probability that a student has either a Visa card or a MasterCard is $\\ P(V \cup M) = 0.88$ .

Are the events V and M independent?

A way to solve this question is by using the concept of conditional probabilities.

In Probability, two events are independent when we conclude that

$\\ P(A|B) = P(A)$ [1]

The general formula for a conditional probability or the probability that event A given (or assuming) the event B is as follows:

$\\ P(A|B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$

If we use the previous formula to find conditional probabilities of event M given event V or vice-versa, we can conclude that

$\\ P(M|V) = \frac{P(M \cap V)}{P(V)}$

$\\ P(M|V) = \frac{0.03}{0.73}$

$\\ P(M|V) \approx 0.041$

If M were independent from V (according to [1]), we have

$\\ P(M|V) = P(M) = 0.18$

Which is different from we obtained previously;

That is,

$\\ P(M|V) \approx 0.041$

So, the events V and M are not independent.

We can conclude the same if we calculate the probability

$\\ P(V|M)$ , as follows:

$\\ P(V|M) = \frac{P(V \cap M)}{P(M)}$

$\\ P(V|M) = \frac{0.03}{0.18}$

$\\ P(V|M) = 0.1666.....\approx 0.17$

Which is different from

$\\ P(V|M) = P(V) = 0.73$

In the case that both events were independent.

Notice that

$\\ P(V|M)*P(M) = P(M|V)*P(V) = P(V \cap M) = P(M \cap V)$

$\\ \frac{0.03}{0.18}*0.18 = \frac{0.03}{0.73}*0.73 = 0.03 = 0.03$

$\\ 0.03 = 0.03 = 0.03 = 0.03$

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SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

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N°1. (1+1)x1-1 N°2. (2+2)x 2-6​

N°1. (1+1)x1-1 N°2. (2+2)x 2-6